• J
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    “Quantifier variance” is a term generally credited to Eli Hirsch, who in turn claimed inspiration from Hilary Putnam. It’s a version of ontological pluralism which poses questions about whether terms like “exists”, “there are”, “object”, and “Ǝx” necessarily have privileged meanings or designations.

    Here’s a good description from Hale and Wright (2009):

    Quantifier-Variance is the doctrine that there are alternative, equally legitimate meanings one can attach to the quantifiers – so that in one perfectly good meaning of ‛there exists’, I may say something true when I assert ‛there exists something which is a compound of this pencil and your left ear’, and in another, you may say something true when you assert ‛there is nothing which is composed of that pencil and my left ear’. And on one view – perhaps not the only possible one – the general significance of this variation in quantifier meanings lies in its deflationary impact on ostensibly head-on disagreements about what kind of objects the world contains: [it may be] a matter of their protagonists choosing to use their quantifiers (and other associated vocabulary, such as ‛object’) to mean different things – so that in a sense they simply go past each other. — Bob Hale and Crispin Wright

    So this is a way to clarify or dissolve problems in mereology and, perhaps even more basically, to help resolve ancient quarrels between nominalists and Platonists about abstracta. Do numbers exist? It depends on how you restrict/define your quantifiers, and there is no correct or privileged way to do this, says the proponent of quantifier variance. This is the “deflationary impact” that Hale and Wright talk about: It reduces ontology to something much less than it appears. As Matti Eklund puts it here: “Both Hirsch and Putnam take their ontological pluralism to entail that ontological questions are shallow. Hirsch says for instance that the proponent of quantifier variance ‛will address a typical question of ontology either by shrugging it off with Carnapian tolerance for many different answers, or by insisting with Austinian glee that the answer is laughably trivial.’” In other words, there are either many, equally good ontologies that will allow the scientist and/or philosopher to accomplish what she wants to accomplish, or else the whole question is verbal, and silly -- “it depends what you mean,” and you can mean whatever is consistent, or at least acceptable to your fellow language-users.

    This is a super-rough sketch, but I hope good enough to pose the meta-problem I want to raise. To set it up, let me bring in Theodore Sider, not a fan of slapdash quantifier variance. He says, in "Ontological Realism": “Every serious theory of the world that anyone has ever considered employs a quantificational apparatus, from physics to mathematics to the social sciences to folk theorists. Quantification is as indispensable as it gets.” No one, Sider says, can avoid “choosing fundamental notions with which to describe the world.” If your fundamental notion is that “reality” and “the world” and “fundamental” are non-objective, that is still a fundamental notion. However, you could claim to “accept the idea of structure as applied to logic but deny that there is distinguished quantificational structure in particular.” Sider calls this “in essence, quantifier variance,” and he doesn’t think it works.

    Can I accept logical structure (aka the rules of logic or rationality or inferential validity) while leaving empty – or at least unspecified – the “existence stuff” we want to plug into our ontology? Here’s another way of asking the question: Does logical structure entail ontological commitments about things like grounding, “simples,” existence, Ǝx, and other tools of the trade? Is there any way that such commitments can be rescued from the charge that they’re either pragmatic or merely verbal? And yet a third, very simple way to pose the question: Can quantifiers really “mean different things,” as long as inferential rules and other logical apparatus are respected?

    I think this question, in whatever version, is a hard one. Just to give a taste of the kind of complexity involved: Borrowing an example from Sider, let’s say I am a non-native English speaker who has recently learned the language. I mistakenly believe that the word for “number” is “fish”. You and I have a conversation in which we discover we’re both nominalists. You say, correctly from our shared point of view, “numbers do not exist”. I agree with you, saying “fish do not exist”. Sider claims, I think rightly, that this is not a “verbal dispute” in the classic sense of two people talking past each other because they use words differently. You and I both mean the same thing – we are each thinking the same thing about numbers – but I have made a verbal mistake. Presumably, genuine disagreements between languages can’t be analyzed and resolved in this way. And what about disagreements about quantifiers? (This is me now, not Sider.) If I say “mereological composites exist” and you say “there is no such thing as a mereological composite”, which kind of dispute is going on? Are we disagreeing about concepts, while using the same words? Or are we holding the concept of “existence” steady, while (someone is) making a mistake in terminology? How could we know which of us is making the mistake?!

    I don’t know nearly enough about quantifier variance to have solid positions on any of this. I know just enough to realize that the question is of critical importance for ontology. So I’d welcome any responses, especially from philosophers who have been wrestling with this for a while. Can we have quantifiers without “distinguished metaphysical status”?
  • Banno
    23.5k
    Interesting. But

    Quantifier Variance Dissolved

    (i) quantifiers cannot vary their meaning extensionally by changing the domain of quantification; (ii) quantifiers cannot vary their meaning intensionally without collapsing into logical pluralism; (iii) quantifier variance is not an ontological doctrine; (iv) quantifier variance is not compatible with charitable translation and as such is internally inconsistent.

    In your example, it is difficult to see how folk could come to agree that they are both nominalists in such circumstances...

    That is, I think the fourth objection is the most telling.
  • J
    214
    Thanks, Banno. The paper looks right on target. Sider also has a lot of arguments against quantifier variance. I'll read it carefully and reply. But just looking at objections i - iv, I agree that (iv) raises issues but perhaps should be phrased, "QV appears not to be compatible with charitable translation, and thus requires a defense of its internal consistency." Soften it, in other words. And I think (i) is largely where the debate between Hirschians and Siderians takes place. Sider says the quantifiers have to be unrestricted. But let me read and cogitate . . .
  • Banno
    23.5k
    Cheers. And thanks for the thread - far and away the most interesting in a few weeks.

    I'm thinking that in order to interpret charitably, the domain must be held constant - we presume that we share the same beliefs. I don't understand how we could have a conversation if we were each talking about a different domain.

    But that might be contentious, and needs work. And it has profound implications - relativism and antirealism are waiting in the wings...
  • J
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    Agree about the profound implications. It's all part of the same discussion we visited back with Davidson et al.

    Thanks for appreciating the thread!
  • Banno
    23.5k
    What did you make of the article after a read?

    For those who don't see the point of the topic, consider

    In contemporary metaontological discussions, quantifier variance is the view according to which there is no unique best language to de- scribe the world. Two equivalent descriptions of the world may differ for a variety of pragmatic purposes, but none is privileged as providing the correct account of reality.Finn and Bueno
  • J
    214
    Funny, I was just sitting down to start a reply. I thought the article was brilliant, in about a dozen ways. Enormously helpful in clarifying the issues, especially when read side by side with the Sider paper. I also think there are a couple of points they missed which I want to try to articulate. I'm a slow (re)reader and even slower writer. I'll be back with something in a day or two, hopefully.
  • J
    214
    Okay, I can at least start with this . . .

    Concerning Finn & Bueno: as I said, a wonderful paper, full of insight. I’m particularly grateful for the four-part counterclaim to quantifier variance around which they structure the paper, because you can then use those four issues as a kind of checklist for any defense of QV. That will be part of another post I’ll write, but for now I want to consider a different question.

    Finn & Bueno write that Ǝ “invariably has the function of ranging over the domain and signaling that some, rather than none, of its members satisfy the relevant formula. Yet the quantifier-variance theorist requires Ǝ to have multiple meanings. . . . This raises the issue of how the meaning of a quantifier can differ, and what the other meanings could be. And it is this issue that we tackle, arguing that one cannot make sense of variation in quantificational apparatus in the way the the quantifier-variance theorist demands.”

    I think there’s a subtle but crucial equivocation going on here, around the term “meaning”. Consider this from the Sider paper referenced above: Sider also wants to know what these “candidate meanings” could be, but he lays out the question differently. “Understand a ‛candidate meaning’ henceforth as an assignment of meaning to each sentence of the quantificational language in question, where the assigned meanings are assumed to determine, at the least, truth conditions. ‛Candidate meanings’ here are located in the first instance at the level of the sentence; subsentential expressions (like quantifiers)[my itals] can be thought of as having meaning insofar as they contribute to the meanings of the sentences that contain them.”

    If Sider means “can be thought of as having meaning only insofar as they contribute to the meanings of the sentences” (which I believe he does), then we have an important distinction. It would be possible, on this view, for the meanings of sentences containing quantifiers to vary according to one’s chosen L, while the quantifiers themselves do not vary. They still get used only one way, the way Finn & Bueno think they must. We would thus fulfill the requirement that Ǝ always has to mean what it ought to mean in well-formed logical expressions. But there’s still room for “quantifier variance” if the meaning resides not at the level of the quantifier but, as Sider suggests, at the level of the sentence.

    An example might be helpful. I say “numbers exist”; you say “numbers do not exist”. Each of us would have to use Ǝ to formulate our position in Logicalese. What I’m arguing is that we’re each going to use Ǝ the same way, as we state our respective contradictory positions. The difference in our statements is not at the subsentential, quantifier level. We have no quarrel about "variation in quantificational apparatus." We differ on what exists, not on the use of the quantifier.

    Is this still quantifier variance? I say yes, in spirit if not in name. It sharpens the question of multiple ontologies rather than dismissing it. Granted, I’m also suggesting that the term “quantifier variance” is perhaps poorly chosen, since it does seem to imply that it’s the meaning of the quantifier per se, rather than any sentence formed using it, that can change. But the reason why someone would want to posit QV is unaffected. The question never was “Can we find multiple meanings for Ǝ (or ‛&’ or ‛→’ or any of the other operators)?” Rather, what Hirsch is interested in is the question, “Can sentences about existence (which logicians express using Ǝ) change their meanings based on what criteria the speaker is using for existence? Can people talk past each other because their sentences, as a result, mean different things? If so, is there one privileged or distinguished way we ought to write these sentences in order to capture something true about the structure of the world?” If we accept ontological pluralism, then the last question (usually) gets a “no,” but all those many ontologies will still be expressed with well-behaved, consistent operators, satisfying Finn & Bueno. (And yes, I agree with them and with Sider that logical pluralism is untenable as an argument for QV.)

    This analysis overlaps with another problem I want to raise about the entire debate, concerning whether ‛Ǝ’ is uniquely troublesome in that it’s used to refer to both a quantifier and a predicate. But I’ll save it and invite comment on this question of equivocation on “meaning”. To summarize: Is it the quantifier whose meaning changes, or the sentences in which the (unchanged) quantifier occurs? And if the latter, is it still QV?
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    I say “numbers exist”; you say “numbers do not exist”.J

    As mentioned in the other thread, I have been very interested in this question since first posting on forums (even though I can't really get my head around the technicalities of the arguments presented in the OP so my comments here might be tangential to those.)

    My intuition about the matter is simply that numbers are real but that they don't exist.

    In everyday speech, of course, it is fine to say 'the number 7 exists while the square root of 2 does not'. But if I ask you to point to the number 7, what you're pointing to is a symbol. It can as easily be symbolised 'seven', 'VII', 'seben', '0b111' and so on. But while the symbolic form exists, what it symbolises, a number, is an act, namely, the act of counting, which is grasped by the mind:

    "in the same way", Frege says "that a pencil exists independently of grasping it. Thought contents are true and bear their relations to one another (and presumably to what they are about) independently of anyone's thinking these thought contents - "just as a planet, even before anyone saw it, was in interaction with other planets."Frege on Knowing the Third Realm, Tyler Burge

    And the act of counting does not exist in the sense that phenomenal objects exist. But I don't know if there's provision in the current philosophical lexicon to allow for phenomenal and intelligible objects to exist in different ways (although perhaps that's a matter for modal metaphysics.) At any rate, I'm of the view that the unspoken assumption about the matter is that existence is univocal, i.e. something either exists or it does not, whereas here I'm pointing out entities that don't exist as do sensible objects.

    About the only discussion I'm aware of that elucidates this distinction (albeit in relation to universals rather than number per se) is in Russell's Problems of Philosophy>The World of Universals:

    Consider such a proposition as 'Edinburgh is north of London'. Here we have a relation between two places, and it seems plain that the relation subsists independently of our knowledge of it. When we come to know that Edinburgh is north of London, we come to know something which has to do only with Edinburgh and London: we do not cause the truth of the proposition by coming to know it, on the contrary we merely apprehend a fact which was there before we knew it. The part of the earth's surface where Edinburgh stands would be north of the part where London stands, even if there were no human being to know about north and south, and even if there were no minds at all in the universe. ...We may therefore now assume it to be true that nothing mental is presupposed in the fact that Edinburgh is north of London. But this fact involves the relation 'north of', which is a universal; and it would be impossible for the whole fact to involve nothing mental if the relation 'north of', which is a constituent part of the fact, did involve anything mental. Hence we must admit that the relation, like the terms it relates, is not dependent upon thought, but belongs to the independent world which thought apprehends but does not create.

    This conclusion, however, is met by the difficulty that the relation 'north of' does not seem to exist in the same sense in which Edinburgh and London exist. If we ask 'Where and when does this relation exist?' the answer must be 'Nowhere and nowhen'. There is no place or time where we can find the relation 'north of'. It does not exist in Edinburgh any more than in London, for it relates the two and is neutral as between them. Nor can we say that it exists at any particular time. Now everything that can be apprehended by the senses or by introspection exists at some particular time. Hence the relation 'north of' is radically different from such things. It is neither in space nor in time, neither material nor mental; yet it is something.

    It is largely the very peculiar kind of being that belongs to universals which has led many people to suppose that they are really mental. We can think of a universal, and our thinking then exists in a perfectly ordinary sense, like any other mental act. Suppose, for example, that we are thinking of whiteness. Then in one sense it may be said that whiteness is 'in our mind'....In the strict sense, it is not whiteness that is in our mind, but the act of thinking of whiteness. The connected ambiguity in the word 'idea', which we noted at the same time, also causes confusion here. In one sense of this word, namely the sense in which it denotes the object of an act of thought, whiteness is an 'idea'. Hence, if the ambiguity is not guarded against, we may come to think that whiteness is an 'idea' in the other sense, i.e. an act of thought; and thus we come to think that whiteness is mental. But in so thinking, we rob it of its essential quality of universality. One man's act of thought is necessarily a different thing from another man's; one man's act of thought at one time is necessarily a different thing from the same man's act of thought at another time. Hence, if whiteness were the thought as opposed to its object, no two different men could think of it, and no one man could think of it twice. That which many different thoughts of whiteness have in common is their object, and this object is different from all of them. Thus universals are not thoughts, though when known they are the objects of thoughts.

    We shall find it convenient only to speak of things existing when they are in time, that is to say, when we can point to some time at which they exist (not excluding the possibility of their existing at all times). Thus thoughts and feelings, minds and physical objects exist. But universals do not exist in this sense; we shall say that they subsist or have being, where 'being' is opposed to 'existence' as being timeless.

    My bolds. My sense is that rational thought is shot through with these kinds of relations, that they hold reasoned argument together - something that we don't notice because we look through them, rather than at them. So in that sense, numbers and universals are real as the constituents of reason - athough not, as conceptualism says, as 'products of the mind', for the reason that Russell gives in the bolded phrase.

    I believe that this supports what I am calling the philosophy of phenomenological idealism as outlined in The Mind-Created World op - that the so-called 'external world' is held together by such rational cognitive acts.
  • Banno
    23.5k
    An example might be helpful. I say “numbers exist”; you say “numbers do not exist”. Each of us would have to use Ǝ to formulate our position in Logicalese. What I’m arguing is that we’re each going to use Ǝ the same way, as we state our respective contradictory positions. The difference in our statements is not at the subsentential, quantifier level. We have no quarrel about "variation in quantificational apparatus." We differ on what exists, not on the use of the quantifier.J
    This looks agreeable.

    To summarize: Is it the quantifier whose meaning changes, or the sentences in which the (unchanged) quantifier occurs? And if the latter, is it still QV?J
    Isn't there variation in the domain, in what we are talking about, while quantification remains constant?

    That is, we can bring in Davidson's argument against relativism. If we are even to recognise that there are two domains, we must thereby hold quantification constant.

    (This is too brief - just me trying to recall the line of thought I was following.)
  • Banno
    23.5k
    Amused to see that Hirsch's latest publication is "On ontology by stipulation".

    In previous work the author suggested that many ontological disputes can be viewed as merely verbal, in that each side can be charitably interpreted as speaking the truth in its own language. Critics have objected that it is more plausible to view the disputants as speaking the same language, perhaps even a special philosophy-room language, sometimes called Ontologese. This chapter suggests a different kind of deflationary move, in a way more extreme (possibly more Carnapian) than the author’s previous suggestion. The chapter supposes we encounter an ontological dispute between two sides, the A-side and the B-side, and we assume that they are speaking the same language so that (at least) one of them is mistaken (perhaps the common language is Ontologese). The author’s suggestion is that we can introduce by stipulation two languages, one for each side, such that in speaking the A-side stipulated language we capture whatever facts might be expressed in the A-side’s position, and in speaking the B-side stipulated language we capture whatever facts might be expressed in the B-side’s position. In this way we get whatever facts there might be in this ontological area without risking falsehood. A further part of the argument consists in explaining why the stipulation maneuver applies to questions of ontology but not to questions of mathematics (such as the Goldbach conjecture). One basic point is that mathematics has application to contingencies in a way that ontology doesn’t.Eli Hirsch

    Might be interesting.
  • J
    214
    My intuition about the matter is simply that numbers are real but that they don't exist.Wayfarer

    Sure, that's a perfectly good intuition, based on restricting "existence" to a certain range. All the problems come up when someone then asks you, Why make that choice? I don't mean just you, I mean anyone who wants to say something using words like "real" and "exist". What sort of case are philosophers supposed to make for their choices here?

    Hence, if whiteness were the thought as opposed to its object, no two different men could think of it, and no one man could think of it twice. That which many different thoughts of whiteness have in common is their object, and this object is different from all of them. Thus universals are not thoughts, though when known they are the objects of thoughts.
    -- Russell

    Russell's distinction here is good to keep in mind. See Popper for an even better explanation of how thoughts differ from the objects of thought.

    "We shall find it convenient only to speak of things existing when they are in time."

    --Russell

    Back to the point above, notice Russell's justification for his choice about "existence": convenience! I think most of the good arguments for how to use words like "existence" are pragmatic -- we want to use the words in the ways that will help us frame the questions we're trying to ask. There is, arguably, some sort of "best way" to do this, but it doesn't start by sending a team of metaphysicians to beat the bushes and bring back an actual sample of "existence" or "reality".
  • J
    214
    Isn't there variation in the domain, in what we are talking about, while quantification remains constant?Banno

    I think this is a version of the question that was worrying me, about whether " ‛Ǝ’ is uniquely troublesome in that it’s used to refer to both a quantifier and a predicate." I've tried several times to sort out what I mean but I can't seem to nail it down. If you have time, can you expand on your question? Maybe it will jog my brain.

    If we are even to recognise that there are two domains, we must thereby hold quantification constant.Banno

    Yes, that would follow. Are there two domains?
  • J
    214
    Thanks, it does look interesting.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    I may say something true when I assert ‛there exists something which is a compound of this pencil and your left ear’, and in another, you may say something true when you assert ‛there is nothing which is composed of that pencil and my left ear’ — Bob Hale and Crispin Wright

    This talk of mereology reminded me of Francisco Suarez, maybe it is of interest:
    XII. Y de esto se sigue, primer lugar, que aunque cada individuo sea la realidad formalmente uno, sin intervención de la consideración de la mente, sin embargo, muchos individuos de quienes afirmamos ser de la misma naturaleza, no son algo uno con verdadera unidad que exista en las cosas, a no ser sólo fundamentalmente o mediante el entendimiento. Y por eso siempre que Aristóteles dice que muchas cosas forman un uno en esencia o razón formal, explica dicha unidad en orden al entendimiento, concretamente, porque concebidos bajo una razón o definición, como se echa de ver en el lib. V de la Metafisica, c. 6, texto 11, y en el lib. X, al principio. Y Santo Tomás en el De ente et essentia, c. 4, dijo en este sentido que la naturaleza no tiene esencialmente unidad común, porque, de lo contrario, no podría convertirse en singular. Segundo, se deduce que una cosa es hablar de unidad formal y otra de la "comunidad" de dicha unidad; porque la unidad se da en las cosas, según se explicó; en cambio, la "comunidad" propia y estrictamente no se da en las cosas, porque ninguna unidad que exista en la realidad es común, según demostramos, sino que en las cosas singulares hay cierta semejanza en sus unidades formales, en la cual se funda la comunidad que el entendimiento puede atribuir a tal naturaleza en cuanto concebida por él, y esta semejanza no es propiamente unidad, porque no expresa la indivisión de las entidades en que se funda, sino solo la conveniencia o relación, o la coexistencia de ambas. — Disputaciones Metafísicas
    12. And from this it follows, in the first place, that although each individual is in reality formally one, without the intervention of the mind's consideration, nevertheless, many individuals of whom we claim to be of the same nature are not one thing with true unity existing in things, unless only fundamentally or through the understanding. And therefore whenever Aristotle says that many things form a one in essence or formal reason, he explains this unity in order to the understanding, namely, because they are conceived under one reason or definition, as we see in the fifth book of the Metaphysics, c. 6, text 11, and in the tenth book, at the beginning. And St. Thomas in De ente et essentia, c. 4, said in this sense that nature has essentially no common unity, because otherwise it could not become singular. Secondly, it follows that it is one thing to speak of formal unity and another of the ‘community’ of that unity; for unity is given in things, as explained. On the other hand, ‘commonness’ properly and strictly speaking does not occur in things, because no unity existing in reality is common, as we have shown, but in singular things there is a certain similarity in their formal unities, on which is founded the commonness which the understanding can attribute to such a nature as is conceived by it, and this similarity is not properly unity, because it does not express the indivision of the entities on which it is founded, but only the convenience or relation, or the coexistence of the two. — DeepL translation, edited

    But I am of the opinion that this has nothing to do with the meaning of "there is", I am not on the side of pluralism.
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    All the problems come up when someone then asks you, Why make that choice? I don't mean just you, I mean anyone who wants to say something using words like "real" and "exist". What sort of case are philosophers supposed to make for their choices here?J

    I say there is a crucial but neglected distinction between 'what is real' and 'what exists'. It is found in apophatic theology - the stance of Paul Tillich and others that 'God does not exist' (see this brief OP.) Ultimately this goes back to the distinguishing of reality from appearance - which is at the root of the Western philosophical tradition, although generally neglected in current philosophy. Philosophically, the root can be found in Parmenides and the subsequent Platonic tradition, in which 'the One' is understood to be 'beyond existence and non-existence'. But as all of that is now gone and forgotten to anyone other than a few specialist academics, I don't expect it to be understood.

    Existence refers to what is finite and fallen and cut of from its true being. Within the finite realm issues of conflict between abound between autonomy and heteronomy. Resolution of these conflicts lies in the essential realm (the Ground of Meaning/the Ground of Being) which humans are both estranged and yet also dependent on. In existence man is that finite being who is aware both of his belonging to and separation from the infinite. Therefore existence is estrangement.
  • Banno
    23.5k
    See PopperJ
    I don't recall this - where is it?

    Nice use of Russell. It looks to be a precursor to discussions of private language.

    seems to want two sorts of quantifiers, real and exist. He's immediately committed at least to some sort of free logic. He is giving us permission to talk of things that do not exist, but are real - like numbers.

    That's one way of using ∃ as a quantifier and as a predicate - in this case, ∃!, such that ∃!t=df∃x(x=t). But this is just to create a short form, and permit empty singular terms.

    Are there two domains? Well, here I am not on secure ground, but I think there are good arguments for making use of multiple domains. For example, if there is only one domain then every individual exists in every possible world... Uy☐∃x(x=y). But I do wish to be able to say that it is possible that some things might not have existed. See Quantifiers in Modal Logic.

    is content with mysticism; but I'm not. I'd prefer to remain silent than to lurch into inconsistency.

    So I'll go back to the point made elsewhere, that it seems to me that domains are stipulated, not discovered. This by way of agreeing that
    ...it doesn't start by sending a team of metaphysicians to beat the bushes and bring back an actual sample of "existence" or "reality".J
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    ↪Wayfarer seems to want two sorts of quantifiers, real and exist. He's immediately committed at least to some sort of free logic. He is this giving us permission to talk of things that do not exist, but are real - like numbers.Banno

    I say it's a real philosophical distinction which has become lost due to specifics of intellectual history. I can make the case for it, but it would be a very long one. I'm not 'content with mystisicm', a term generally spat out as a pejorative, especially by analytical philosophy. But it is a real and crucial issue which overflows the bounds of propositional language (as I believe Wittgenstein hints at in the mystical aphorisms at the end of his book.)
  • Banno
    23.5k
    I can make the case for it, but it would be a very long one.Wayfarer
    Go on - you've nearly caught me, in terms of post count! :wink:
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    Actually I'm relieved that there's at least one other contributor more voluble than I :yikes: .

    The historical theme that I refer to is the long aftermath of the dispute between realism and nominalism amongst the Medievals. I say that nominalism won the argument, and that, as history is written by the victors, it is now so thoroughly embedded in the philosophical lexicon that we no longer notice it, it has become axiomatic.

    Due to some long-ago epiphany, I became interested in Platonic and Aristotelian realism (as I've mentioned many times). The fact that numbers and the like exist as intelligible objects strikes me as having profound philosophical importance, because, while they're indispensable to natural science, they are transcendental in the sense of being 'true in all possible worlds'. I don't believe they have a naturalistic explanation, as they are epistemologically prior to any coherent naturalism (which must assume the soundness of logic and math to establish any of its claims.)

    It seems to me much modern philosophy wants to ignore this or explain it away (hence the convoluted Indispensability of Mathematics in the Natural Sciences argument by Putnam and Quine.) This is subject of one of the stock articles I now refer to What is Math (Smithsonian Magazine). James Brown, a maths emeritus, argues for the Platonist view, while the representatives of empiricism pour scorn:

    Scientists tend to be empiricists; they imagine the universe to be made up of things we can touch and taste and so on; things we can learn about through observation and experiment. The idea of something existing “outside of space and time” makes empiricists nervous: It sounds embarrassingly like the way religious believers talk about God, and God was banished from respectable scientific discourse a long time ago.

    I think that speaks volumes! It goes on....

    "Platonism", as mathematician Brian Davies has put it, “has more in common with mystical religions than it does with modern science.” The fear is that if mathematicians give Plato an inch, he’ll take a mile. If the truth of mathematical statements can be confirmed just by thinking about them, then why not ethical problems, or even religious questions? Why bother with empiricism at all?

    Ain't that the truth.

    Massimo Pigliucci, a philosopher at the City University of New York, was initially attracted to Platonism—but has since come to see it as problematic. If something doesn’t have a physical existence, he asks, then what kind of existence could it possibly have? “If one ‘goes Platonic’ with math,” writes Pigliucci, empiricism “goes out the window.” (If the proof of the Pythagorean theorem exists outside of space and time, why not the “golden rule,” or even the divinity of Jesus Christ?)

    See, they're all actually getting close to the issue I'm talking about, but they flee screaming, because of the metaphysical implications. And nobody likes metaphysics. It's like Basil Fawlty's, 'don't mention the war'. :wink:
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    Massimo Pigliucci, a philosopher at the City University of New York, was initially attracted to Platonism—but has since come to see it as problematic. If something doesn’t have a physical existence, he asks, then what kind of existence could it possibly have? “If one ‘goes Platonic’ with math,” writes Pigliucci, empiricism “goes out the window.” (If the proof of the Pythagorean theorem exists outside of space and time, why not the “golden rule,” or even the divinity of Jesus Christ?)

    All respect to Dr. Pigliucci, but if his argument really obtained, we would not see platonism (lower-case!) being such a common position among philosophers.

    If the truth of mathematical statements can be confirmed just by thinking about them

    I don't think that is the claim. The opposite seems true, an advantage of platonism over nominalism is exactly how math applies to the sciences.

    And by identifying the indispensable components invoked in the explanation of various phenomena, and noting that mathematical entities are among them, the platonist is then in a position to make sense of the success of applied mathematics.
    [...]
    to accommodate that success is often taken as a significant benefit of platonism. Less controversially, the platonist is certainly able to describe the way in which mathematical theories are actually used in scientific practice without having to rewrite them. This is, as will become clear below, a significant benefit of the view.
    SEP's Nominalism in the Philosophy of Mathematics

    But in the "[...]" paragraph we see that we can still thrash the platonists on that point. But such is the issue with every kind of non-monism, the interaction/relation problem.

    Edit: But not exactly the topic of the thread.



    On another note, it is good to see Otávio Bueno being cited here. I remember seeing his name on a few papers I have read in the past.
  • Banno
    23.5k

    I just think there is a category error in supposing that numbers must exist or not exist.

    Rather, they are something we do. A way of talking about things. A grammar. I've filled this out elsewhere and in previous conversations with you.

    But this is not the topic of this thread.
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    Rather, they are something we do.Banno

    And I don't think you understand the argument, nor want to understand it.
  • Banno
    23.5k
    Meh. I could say that that's a cop out. You are just excusing yourself from answering my critique. But that doesn't progress the discussion.

    I've made an attempt to tighten up your claim by pointing out its relation to free logic and modality. You have not addressed this. Presumably, if I have not understood your argument, you can point out how what you claim differed from what I offered.

    So here, we are in basic agreement:
    But while the symbolic form exists, what it symbolises, a number, is an act, namely, the act of counting, which is grasped by the mindWayfarer
    And presumably we agree there is some reification, where the act of counting is treated as if we were dealing with a series of individuals - 1,2,3...

    But whereas you seem to be saying that these individuals are "real", I'm pointing out that they remain shorthand for an activity we can perform.

    And sure, we can quantify them as needed.

    So what is the argument I don't understand - is it the same one you could make a case for, but is too long? Then you might forgive my not understanding it until you present it...
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    But whereas you seem to be saying that these individuals are "real", I'm pointing out that they remain shorthand for an activity we can perform.Banno

    Excellent point and I will respond soon.
  • Banno
    23.5k
    okay. For the sake of addressing the OP, it is worth pointing out that we do indeed quantify over numbers. There is an X such that X is greater than seven.

    So whatever you mean when you say numbers don't exist, it can't be that.
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    Of course, numbers are the currency of quantification. But I don't think my previous reply to you was 'a cop-out.' I think in all likelihood you skimmed over it, and that in reality it's a live issue and also related to the OP (although I will admit that I'm not well-trained in the lexicon (dare I say jargon) of analytic philosophy.)

    Certainly counting may be an act, indeed I believe it is, but that doesn't address the issue of the realness or otherwise of numbers - which is the ontological issue. And why that is significant is because of the centrality of mathematics to science, mathematical physics in particular, and because of the challenge that poses to physicalism. (I'm baffled that this is regarded as trivial.) Again I'll refer to an IEP article The Indispensability Argument in the Philosophy of Mathematics which I'm sure will be amenable to you, as it is based around an argument by Putnam and Quine, whom you probably know better than I do. So I would like to get your view of the matter:

    In his seminal 1973 paper, “Mathematical Truth,” Paul Benacerraf presented a problem facing all accounts of mathematical truth and knowledge. Standard readings of mathematical claims entail the existence of mathematical objects. But, our best epistemic theories seem to deny that knowledge of mathematical objects is possible.

    What are these 'best epistemic theories', and why are they irreconciliable with knowledge of mathematical objects? Well, the article goes on to explain:

    Mathematical objects are in many ways unlike ordinary physical objects such as trees and cars. We learn about ordinary objects, at least in part, by using our senses. It is not obvious that we learn about mathematical objects this way. Indeed, it is difficult to see how we could use our senses to learn about mathematical objects. We do not see integers, or hold sets. Even geometric figures are not the kinds of things that we can sense. Consider any point in space; call it P. P is only a point, too small for us to see, or otherwise sense. Now imagine a precise fixed distance away from P, say an inch and a half. The collection of all points that are exactly an inch and a half away from P is a sphere. The points on the sphere are, like P, too small to sense. We have no sense experience of the geometric sphere.

    And further along:

    (Rationalist) philosophers claim that we have a special, non-sensory capacity for understanding mathematical truths, a rational insight arising from pure thought. But, the rationalist’s claims appear incompatible with an understanding of human beings as physical creatures whose capacities for learning are exhausted by our physical bodies.

    I think this is the nub of the issue. Our 'best epistemic theories' are, of course, naturalist - as I'm sure Quine would affirm - and are underpinned by empiricism - that knowledge originates from sensory experience. And also, there is the suggestion that mathematical ability is innate - another strike against rationalism, from the empiricist point of view.

    And yet, I can't help but think that it's obvious that humans do indeed have a 'non-sensory capacity for understanding mathematical truths' and that if that does throw shade on the view of humans as 'physical creatures', then so much the worse for it.

    What say you?
  • Janus
    15.6k
    I wonder what you mean when you say that numbers are real. Can you explain?
  • Wayfarer
    20.9k
    I wonder what you mean when you say that numbers are real.Janus

    That they have a common reference, that the value of a number is not a matter of opinion or choice. I would like to say 'objective' but I don't think 'objective' is quite the right term - we refer to numbers to ascertain what is objective, but they are not really known as objects except for in the figurative sense of 'object of thought' (which actually is near to the original, as distinct from Kantian, view of the meaning of ’noumenal')
  • Janus
    15.6k
    That they have a common reference, that the value of a number is not a matter of opinion or choice.Wayfarer

    I agree. We can all immediately recognize a small number of whatevers. Larger numbers of things we can count, and there is no room for disagreement. Each number is a kind of recognizable pattern or configuration. So, I would say number is real because it is instantiated everywhere. But I can't imagine any sense beyond that in which we could say numbers are real.
  • fdrake
    5.9k
    @Banno @J

    (ii) quantifiers cannot vary their meaning intensionally without collapsing into logical pluralism;

    That is what you see in practice though. There are no modal operators in propositional logic. But both modal and propositional logic are great. Their semantics also differ considerably. When you write the possibility and necessity symbols in a modal logic, you quantify over possible worlds. When you write them in a quantified modal logic, you quantify over worlds, and there's also quantification within worlds in the usual logic way.

    Those quantifiers are introduced differently, and as the paper "Quantifier Variance Dissolved" notes that provides a strong argument for a form quantifier variance without a reduction of quantifier meaning to underlying entity type it quantifies over, and without committing yourself to the claim that there's a whole bunch of equally correct logics for the purposes of ontology.
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