• Leontiskos
    5.5k
    I don't quite understand what (3) means, but it doesn't seem to follow from (1).Michael

    It is a premise. (2) follows from (1) with another tacit premise; (4) follows from (2) and (3). I will add an edit to make this clear.
  • Michael
    16.5k


    It looks like your justification for (3) is this argument:

    P1. Those who say that trans women are women say that because of this trans women ought be allowed to compete in women's sports
    P2. Women's sports is restricted to biological women
    C1. Therefore, those who say that trans women are women say that because of this trans women ought be allowed to compete in sports restricted to biological women

    If so, this analogy should show the fallacy you're committing:

    P1. John says that he wants to date Jane
    P2. Jane is a married woman
    C1. Therefore, John says that he wants to date a married woman

    C1 doesn't follow because it's possible that John doesn't believe that Jane is a married woman (and even if he does it's not what he said). You can't just substitute terms in this way.

    With respect to trans women in women's sports, it's not that they favour biological males competing in sports restricted to biological women but that they favour women's sports not being restricted to biological women.

    And as for your conclusion that "'transwomen are women' means that biological males who identify as women are biological females", once again nobody who says "trans women are women" is saying "biological males who identify as women have XX chromosomes, a womb, and a vagina". To suggest otherwise is to equivocate.
  • Questioner
    161
    P1. Those who say that trans women are women say that because of this trans women ought be allowed to compete in women's sports
    P2. Only biological women ought be allowed to compete in women's sports
    C1. Therefore, those who say that trans women are women are saying that trans women are biological women
    Michael

    if I may, I'd like to comment on this. I am guessing that "P" stands for proposition, and "C" conclusion"?

    Well, it seems P1 includes a conclusion?

    I don't agree that people who say trans women are women do so because they ought to be allowed in women's sports. I am not sure that anyone has the reasoning listed?
  • Banno
    29.8k
    It is salient if you are sticking strictly to normativity in the logical sense rather than the epistemological sense. You have just continued to corner yourself in the logical sense.I like sushi
    I've no idea wha that means.

    The rest of your post has already been dealt with.
  • Banno
    29.8k
    Thanks for that. It saved me repeating myself.
  • Banno
    29.8k
    Noted a few deleted posts - did I miss anything significant?
  • Leontiskos
    5.5k
    C1 doesn't follow because it's possible that John doesn't believe that Jane is a married womanMichael

    It looks as though you are retreating back to a defense you had already (wisely) , namely the defense that says, "Ah, but none of these people knew that men's boxing excluded women on the basis of biology." Again, such a position is so implausible as to appear disingenuous. You are trying to claim that John's not knowing that Jane is married is the same as the trans activist not knowing that women's boxing excluded men on the basis of biology. :yikes:

    We could draw out other absurd consequences of your view. You apparently think that, as with John, if you were to explain the situation to the trans activist then their course of action would alter. You apparently think that if you explained to the trans activist that women's boxing excludes men on the basis of biology, then they would change their views; or that if you explained to the trans activist that:

    1. "Transwomen are women" means that biological men who identify as women are feminine (or woman-gendered)Leontiskos

    ...then they would stop using that phrase in connection with these sports issues or other sex-based issues. The fact of the matter is that the trans activist does not care a whit about your quibbles. Nothing they do is based on some principled difference between sex and gender, where they seek to alter norms based on gender but leave intact norms based on sex. I think you know this.

    With respect to trans women in women's sports, it's not that they favour biological males competing in sports restricted to biological women but that they favour women's sports not being restricted to biological women.Michael

    This is yet another quibble, a distinction without a difference. Trans activists want biological men and biological women to compete in the same sports leagues, even when it comes to sports like boxing. They want them to share the same restrooms, the same shelters, the same locker rooms, etc. All of this points to the same issue: your convenient construal of, "Trans men are men," is surely false. As I said in , their claim has little to do with gender. It is a claim about the inclusion of identifying individuals into the sphere with which they identify. Sex divisions in sports is just one impediment to that program of the sovereignty of self-identity. You misrepresent their position when you claim that they are speaking to gender but not sex, as if they were uninterested in changing norms around sex.

    Coming back to the original post:

    The activist means something like, "This human being who says that he is a man should be viewed by all as a man, both as regards sex and gender."Leontiskos

    Well I certainly don't think that anyone who says "trans men are men" means to say "anyone who self-identifies as a man has XY chromosomes and a penis".Michael

    Lots of people who say "transmen are men" think transmen should be provided with penises by the government, and they probably also think that transmen "deserve" XY chromosomes, even though they realize that such a thing is not (yet) possible. These are the sorts of facts that your skewing of the issue manages to ignore.
  • Leontiskos
    5.5k
    I don't agree that people who say trans women are women do so because they ought to be allowed in women's sports.Questioner

    @Michael was engaged in a (mild) strawman. The underlying question has to do with the meaning of a phrase like, "Transmen are men." See on the matter.
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    You are prioritising the logical normative meaning over the everyday epistemic normative use.

    Like here:

    If I am talking about apples and how tasty they are you can assume I am talking about apple devices, but that would be pretty silly, unless you are assuming I mean 'tasty' in a metaphorical sense.
    — I like sushi

    But to carry Philosophim's point what is needed is that one ought not talk about apple devices being sweet.

    What is salient is that we can talk about apple devices being sweet, and trans women being women.
    Banno

    You are taking normative logical priority over normative epistemology.

    Maybe now we can get into the nuts and bolts of philosophical discourse! :smile:

    1- Logic should not prioritise itself above epistemology in a logical normative sense.

    2- Epistemology should prioritise itself over logic in an epistemic normative sense.
  • Banno
    29.8k
    You are prioritising the logical normative meaning over the everyday epistemic normative use.I like sushi

    No. I am saying they are both valid.

    We can, not we ought.
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    No. I am saying they are both valid.

    We can, not we ought.
    Banno

    Of course, the epistemic and logical use of 'ought' are both valid. We can use either.

    You have essentially restated (1):

    1- Logic should not prioritise itself above epistemology in a logical normative sense.

    2- Epistemology should prioritise itself over logic in an epistemic normative sense.
    I like sushi

    You are being very slippery here ;)

    We use one in one situation and another in another?

    A red apple is an apple. Logical ought says true. Epistemic ought says we should think so even though it may not be the kind of apple we are thinking of; therefore, true.

    What are your thought about statement (2)?
  • Michael
    16.5k
    It looks as though you are retreating back to a defense you had already (wisely) ↪abandoned, namely the defense that says, "Ah, but none of these people knew that men's boxing excluded women on the basis of biology." Again, such a position is so implausible as to appear disingenuous. You are trying to claim that John's not knowing that Jane is married is the same as the trans activist not knowing that women's boxing excluded men on the basis of biology. :yikes:

    We could draw out other absurd consequences of your view. You apparently think that, as with John, if you were to explain the situation to the trans activist then their course of action would alter. You apparently think that if you explained to the trans activist that women's boxing excludes men on the basis of biology, then they would change their views; or that if you explained to the trans activist that:
    Leontiskos

    I haven't abandoned anything. I am explaining that you are misrepresenting your opponents' beliefs.

    These are different arguments:

    1. a) only those whose sex is female ought be allowed to compete in women's sports, b) trans women ought be allowed to compete in women's sports, therefore c) trans women are biological men whose sex is female.

    2. a) all those whose gender is female ought be allowed to compete in women's sports, b) trans women are biological men whose gender is female, therefore c) trans women ought be allowed to compete in women's sports.

    You are arguing that because (1a) is true and because these people believe (1b) then these people believe (1c), but this is the intensional fallacy. They don't believe (1a) or (1c); they believe (2a) and (2b) — which is why they believe (2c).

    Lots of people who say "transmen are men" think transmen should be provided with penises by the government, and they probably also think that transmen "deserve" XY chromosomes, even though they realize that such a thing is not (yet) possible. These are the sorts of facts that your skewing of the issue manages to ignore.Leontiskos

    These are different claims:

    1. Biological women who identify as men have XY chromosomes, testes, a penis, etc.
    2. Biological women who identify as men ought be provided with state-funded gender-affirming surgery.

    Even if many people believe (2) it does not follow that these people believe (1). Again, you are equivocating. Anyone who says "trans men are men" understands that these trans men have XX chromosomes, a womb, and (except those that have had surgery) female genitalia, hence why they used the term "trans men".

    So the phrase "trans men are men" obviously means "the gender of trans men is male", not "the sex of trans men is male".
  • Malcolm Parry
    328
    Anyone who says "trans men are men" understands that these trans men have XX chromosomes, a womb, and (except those that have had surgery) female genitalia, hence why they used the term "trans men".Michael

    So trans men are female is a fair statement? So some men are female.

    Which is fine if everyone is happy with using the term men to include female No issue at all (although I disagree with it and think it is ludicrous and misogynist)
    The crux is should women's spaces and sports be for female's only. For sport it is incredibly unfair and sometimes dangerous to include males. For exclusive places there are very sound reasons why they should remain female only.
    The rest of the issue regarding gender is getting less and less relevant the more roles of women in society changes. There is not a job they are excluded from, there are no clothes they have to wear etc etc etc.
  • Banno
    29.8k
    Whatever you are saying here is very unclear to me.

    In order to carry the case that "trans women are women" is always false, Phim has show that we ought not say "trans women are women" is true. But it's been shown that there are cases were we can say "trans women are women" is true.

    In order to carry his OP, Phim has to show it is false in every case. it isn't. The OP is mistaken.
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    In order to carry his OP, Phim has to show it is false in every case. it isn't.Banno

    This is not true. You do not need to show something to be false in every case for it to be epistemically true.

    Why can you not grasp this simple fact?
  • Questioner
    161
    You do not need to show something to be false in every case for it to be epistemically true.I like sushi

    Are you talking about subjective knowledge and subjective truth?
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    I am talking about exactly what I said I was talking about repeatedly, over and over.

    Epistemic norms are not the same as logical norms in terms of truth value. I have been pointing out , for god knows how long, that Banno is constantly favouring logical normativity over epistemic normatively--which outside the confines of techincal dialogue is basically a faulty approach.

    Just like 200 years ago if you said 'doctor' you ought to assume 'male doctor' not 'female doctor' because the epistemic weight backs this up. To say we ought not assume 'doctor' means 'male doctor' is a logical normative approach not an epistemic normative use of 'ought'.

    NOTE: This is not my opinion. If Banno think I am making no sense that is something he will have to overcome. Honestly I just think he is trolling now, as I assume the laughing face means 'haha!' you tookt he bait, or 'haha' you're wrong. If it is the later then he can engage is a serious metaphilosophical debate if he wishes.

    There actually is something interesting to get into here if you are willing. There is literally no need to use tranwomen as an example if that is too sensitive a subject for you?

    So:

    1- Logic should not prioritise itself above epistemology in a logical normative sense.

    2- Epistemology should prioritise itself over logic in an epistemic normative sense.
    I like sushi

    Do you understand what I am pointing to here? I am looking at what I guess could be called a meta-normative problem here.
  • Corvus
    4.6k
    So are transwomen women? Are transwomen men?Philosophim

    The word "Trans" represents that whatever follows after it, is not real.
  • Questioner
    161
    The word "Trans" represents that whatever follows after it, is not real.Corvus

    transcription
    transpositional
    transnational
    transatlantic
    transportation
    transplant
    transfusion
    transaction

    And I am sure that are at least a hundred more.
  • Corvus
    4.6k
    Gibberish

    Etymology of Trans-
    I like sushi

    And I am sure that are at least a hundred more.Questioner

    It just goes to show how misunderstanding and misusing language can lead you to come to total misrepresentation of the objects in the real world.

    You need to transcend the linguistic prison at times, if you want to understand the world correctly.
    The point here is not simple internet Etymology issue. It is about understanding the world objects, and how the words were matched to the objects. You must first understand the objects, and then analyse the meaning of the words put onto them, not the other way around.

    We want to apply philosophical analysis, not internet dictionary here.
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    So you simply meant that trans- is a modifier? I think we know that. It is still a 'real' prefix. What were you trying to say?

    bi- and bilingual is the same structure too. So what?
  • Corvus
    4.6k
    So you simply meant that trans- is a modifier? I think we know that. It is still a 'real' prefix. What were you trying to say?I like sushi

    There were no such words as "transmale" or "transfemale" in ancient times. But in modern times there are people who changed their gender, and the word was invented to represent them.
  • Questioner
    161
    how misunderstanding and misusing language can lead you to come to total misrepresentation of the objects in the real world.Corvus

    There is no misunderstanding or misuse of the word transgender (except maybe on your behalf.)

    By "misrepresentation of objects" - theses objects you speak of - do you mean transgender persons?

    "Transgender identity" is vastly overwhelming accepted by the medical community.

    You need to transcend the linguistic prison at times,Corvus

    I have no idea what this means.

    if you want to understand the world correctly.Corvus

    Oh, this gives us a hint. Funny, but I have always thought of language as a pretty good means of expressing meaning. And - "correctly" according to whom?

    ou must first understand the objects, and then analyse the meaning of the words put onto them, not the other way around.Corvus

    The people who best understand transgender persons call them transgender.

    We want to apply philosophical analysis, not internet dictionary here.Corvus

    I'm not sure, possibly you can clarify, but do you have a problem with the world "transgender?"
  • Questioner
    161
    There were no such words as "transmale" or "transfemale" in ancient times. But in modern times there are people who changed their gender, and the word was invented to represent them.Corvus

    Of course there were transgenders in ancient time. (They actually called them more poetic names) People living in the opposite gender of the sex that they were born into have existed as long as we have been keeping records. They have discovered 5,000-year old graves containing biologically male skeletons in female dress and female grave goods.

    Ever heard of the transgender priestesses of ancient Rome called the Gallae?

    Also - you have a profound misconception about the nature of transgenderism. Transgender persons who transition do not "change their gender." They are born with a gender that does not match the body they were born into. They change the body to match the gender.

    And if this is being recognized now - why does this disturb you?
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    I will revert back to saying gibberish then. :D
  • Corvus
    4.6k
    I'm not sure, possibly you can clarify, but do you have a problem with the world "transgender?"Questioner

    I was just explaining on the origin of the word. The word didn't exist. The people who changed their genders started to show up in the society, and then the word was made up and put on to the people.
    But the word "trans" implies that whatever follows is not the original. Think of the example word "translate". It is the best example word. Unlike you and sushi claimed, it is not a legitimate etymological word origin.
  • Corvus
    4.6k
    I will revert back to saying gibberish then. :DI like sushi

    Whatever you wish. :) But whatever you say and write in public reflect your own integrity and shows up your educational background and mental states to others, hence it is up to you. :D
  • I like sushi
    5.3k
    I was just explaining on the origin of the word. The word didn't exist.Corvus

    No you were not:

    The word "Trans" represents that whatever follows after it, is not real.Corvus

    That is not an explanation of the origin of the word. Neither does it come close to saying the word did not exist before.
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