Morality, Intention and Effects The question I see being problematic with this is what if helping one person inadvertently, or perhaps even knowingly, harms someone else? — Pinprick
Again, basically the same point with this. What if intentionally harming someone helps someone else? — Pinprick
So in these cases one's intentions do not match the actual results. In other words, despite one's best intentions one was ignorant of what was required to achieve the desired results. This would belong in a category that may be called 'naive morality' or 'naive immorality'. One's actions are moral (or immoral), but one is not able to act in a way that brings these intentions about.
For example:
A friend needs help with a psychological problem, but despite one's best efforts, instead of helping this friend one only makes his problem worse.
That would be an example of 'naive moral' behavior.
What if it is intentional, like when a boxer intentionally inflicts as much damage as possible within the rules in order to win the match? Perhaps the contractual nature of boxing, and sports in general, eliminates morality? If I say it’s ok for you to intentionally harm me, is it actually ok? — Pinprick
That depends.
If the intention of the boxer is to win, and hurting his opponent is an unintended side-effect, then I do not think he is being immoral, but possibly ignorant (if he deals more damage than he intends).
If the intention of the boxer is expressly to hurt his opponent, I would say we are certainly in immoral territory.
There is an added dimension of consent in the fact that both boxers agree to being physically hurt by each other in the practice of their sport. I think in this case there's an agreement between the two parties and ideally both parties are aware of what is 'acceptable' hurt to inflict upon each other.
There is of course a difference between having to intention to bloody someone's nose, or trying to deliver brain damage. The other party would likely consent to the former, but not the latter. So in the former case I'd say the behavior isn't immoral, but in the second case it might be.
Just thinking out loud here, but maybe you could argue that a perfectly moral act actually requires some level of ignorance. I find it difficult to think of an act that is essentially vacuous, that only affects one person at one particular time and place. Because of this, it is likely that what helps one person may unknowingly harm someone else. So, if one were omnipotent, and was aware of these unforeseen consequences, would s/he even be capable of only intending to do good? Basically, I think most, perhaps all, moral acts are the type of situation where doing A helps B, but harms C. If we have full understanding, then doing A is intentionally causing both harm and help at the same time, which isn’t perfectly moral. — Pinprick
Lets take our friend with a psychological problem again. Lets say I want to help him, and I succeed in doing so. Who or what would be the party that is harmed in this example?