That said, why should philosophy not have a normative role as well. Maybe we are not discovering what the essence of “Truth”, “Knowledge”, or “Free Will”, but philosophers are inventing what these terms ought to mean. — Richard B
Insofar as one reflectively reasons in order to critique and interpret norms (i.e. rules, criteria, methods, conventions, customs, givens), philosophy is performative. To say, for example, 'one ought to philosophize' does not seem a philosophical statement.[W]hy should philosophy not have a normative role as well. — Richard B
For Wittgenstein, the mathematician is an inventor not a discoverer, and mathematical proposition are normative. — Richard B
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ludwig_Wittgenstein%27s_philosophy_of_mathematics
Ludwig Wittgenstein considered his chief contribution to be in the philosophy of mathematics, a topic to which he devoted much of his work between 1929 and 1944.
https://philpapers.org/archive/FLOOSW.pdf
Wittgenstein's remarks on the first incompleteness theorem 1 have often been denounced, and mostly dismissed. Despite indirect historical evidence to the contrary," it is a commonplace that Wittgenstein rejected Godel's proof because he did not, or even could not, understand it.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del%27s_incompleteness_theorems
On their release, Bernays, Dummett, and Kreisel wrote separate reviews on Wittgenstein's remarks, all of which were extremely negative.[38] The unanimity of this criticism caused Wittgenstein's remarks on the incompleteness theorems to have little impact on the logic community.In 1972, Gödel stated: "Has Wittgenstein lost his mind? Does he mean it seriously? He intentionally utters trivially nonsensical statements", and wrote to Karl Menger that Wittgenstein's comments demonstrate a misunderstanding of the incompleteness theorems writing:
It is clear from the passages you cite that Wittgenstein did not understand [the first incompleteness theorem] (or pretended not to understand it). He interpreted it as a kind of logical paradox, while in fact is just the opposite, namely a mathematical theorem within an absolutely uncontroversial part of mathematics (finitary number theory or combinatorics).[39]
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/wittgenstein-mathematics/
From this it follows that all other apparent propositions are pseudo-propositions of various types and that all other uses of ‘true’ and ‘truth’ deviate markedly from the truth-by-correspondence (or agreement) that contingent propositions have in relation to reality. Thus, from the Tractatus to at least 1944, Wittgenstein maintains that “mathematical propositions” are not real propositions and that “mathematical truth” is essentially non-referential and purely syntactical in nature.
. This is an abstract, Platonic reality and not the physical reality, but regardless, truth is still based on correspondence — Tarskian
Could you provide your own critique of Platonic explanations of the mathematics, lie that of Goedel, or the correspondence theory of truth? This might shed more light on where you think Wittgenstein went wrong. — Joshs
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Remarks_on_the_Foundations_of_Mathematics
Wittgenstein wrote
I imagine someone asking my advice; he says: "I have constructed a proposition (I will use 'P' to designate it) in Russell's symbolism, and by means of certain definitions and transformations it can be so interpreted that it says: 'P is not provable in Russell's system'. Must I not say that this proposition on the one hand is true, and on the other hand unprovable? For suppose it were false; then it is true that it is provable. And that surely cannot be! And if it is proved, then it is proved that it is not provable. Thus it can only be true, but unprovable." Just as we can ask, " 'Provable' in what system?," so we must also ask, "'True' in what system?" "True in Russell's system" means, as was said, proved in Russell's system, and "false" in Russell's system means the opposite has been proved in Russell's system.—Now, what does your "suppose it is false" mean? In the Russell sense it means, "suppose the opposite is proved in Russell's system"; if that is your assumption you will now presumably give up the interpretation that it is unprovable. And by "this interpretation" I understand the translation into this English sentence.—If you assume that the proposition is provable in Russell's system, that means it is true in the Russell sense, and the interpretation "P is not provable" again has to be given up. If you assume that the proposition is true in the Russell sense, the same thing follows. Further: if the proposition is supposed to be false in some other than the Russell sense, then it does not contradict this for it to be proved in Russell's system. (What is called "losing" in chess may constitute winning in another game.)
Just as we can ask, " 'Provable' in what system?," so we must also ask, "'True' in what system?"
If you assume that the proposition is provable in Russell's system, that means it is true in the Russell sense, and the interpretation "P is not provable" again has to be given up.
This might shed more light on where you think Wittgenstein went wrong. — Joshs
:100:Insofar as one reflectively reasons in order to critique and interpret norms (i.e. rules, criteria, methods, conventions, customs, givens), philosophy is performative. To say, for example, 'one ought to philosophize' does not seem a philosophical statement. — 180 Proof
And there is this:The underlying point of Wittgenstein's remarks on Godel is the underlying theme of the later Wittgenstein as a whole: our sentences do not carry their meaning with them intrinsically, or in virtue of something present to the mind ahead of, or apart from, how we give it expression in particular cases. Rather, what we can clearly say about what we mean or think can be made sense of only from within the context of some practice, or ongoing system of use. — Juliet Floyd
I suspect that we might maintain his constructivism, but perhaps rescind his finitism in the light of the considerations of rule-following found in PI.A mathematician is bound to be horrified by my mathematical comments, since he has always been trained to avoid indulging in thoughts and doubts of the kind I develop. He has learned to regard them as something contemptible and… he has acquired a revulsion from them as infantile. That is to say, I trot out all the problems that a child learning arithmetic, etc., finds difficult, the problems that education represses without solving. I say to those repressed doubts: you are quite correct, go on asking, demand clarification! (PG 381, 1932) — Quoted in SEP article
Don't these terms - “Truth”, “Knowledge”, or “Free Will” - already have uses and meanings? So to my favourite quote form Austin:...philosophers are inventing what these terms ought to mean. — Richard B
First, words are our tools, and, as a minimum, we should use clean tools: we should know what we mean and what we do not, and we must forearm ourselves against the traps that language sets us. Secondly, words are not (except in their own little corner) facts or things: we need therefore to prise them off the world, to hold them apart from and against it, so that we can realize their inadequacies and arbitrariness, and can re-look at the world without blinkers. Thirdly, and more hopefully, our common stock of words embodies all the distinctions men have found worth drawing, and the connexions they have found worth making, in the lifetimes of many generations: these surely are likely to be more sound, since they have stood up to the long test of the survival of the fittest, and more subtle, at least in all ordinary and reasonably practical matters, than any that you or I are likely to think up in our arm-chairs of an afternoon—the most favoured alternative method. (Austin, J. L. “A Plea for Excuses: The Presidential Address”, Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society, 1957: 181–182)
I don't understand the question. I think that's because norms are not an optional extra in Wittgenstein's philosophy. Perhaps they are not so clearly visible because he is showing through describing.That said, why should philosophy not have a normative role as well. — Richard B
PI 124 “Philosophy may in no way interfere with the actual use of language; it can in the end only describe it. For it cannot give it any foundation either. It leaves everything as it is.”
PI 126 “Philosophy simply puts everything before us, and neither explains nor deduces anything. Since everything lies open to view there is nothing to explain. For what is hidden, for example, is of no interest to us.” — Richard B
What is your aim in philosophy? To show the fly the way out of the fly-bottle. — PI 309
I should not like my writing to spare other people the trouble of thinking. But if possible, to stimulate someone to thoughts of his own.
A philosophical problem has the form: ‘I don’t know my way about. — PI §123
There is not a philosophical method, though there are indeed methods, like different therapies. — PI §133
The philosopher treats a question; like an illness. — PI §255
The real discovery is the one which enables me to stop doing philosophy when I want to. The one that gives philosophy peace, so that it is no longer tormented by questions which bring itself into question. — PI § 133
What I give is the morphology of the use of an expression. I show that it has kinds of uses of which you had not dreamed. In philosophy one feels forced to look at a concept in a certain way. What I do is suggest, or even invent, other ways of looking at it. I suggest possibilities of which you had not previously thought. You thought that there was one possibility, or only two at most. But I made you think of others. Furthermore, I made you see that it was absurd to expect the concept to conform to those narrow possibilities. Thus your mental cramp is relieved, and you are free to look around the field of use of the expression and to describe the different kinds of uses of it. — Lectures of 1946 - 1947, as quoted in Ludwig Wittgenstein : A Memoir (1966) by Norman Malcolm, p. 43
He once greeted me with the question: 'Why do people say that it was natural to think that the sun went round the earth rather than that the earth turned on its axis?' I replied: 'I suppose, because it looked as if the sun went round the earth.' 'Well,' he asked, 'what would it have looked like if it had looked as if the earth turned on its axis?' This question brought it out that I had hitherto given no relevant meaning to 'it looks as if' in 'it looks as if the sun goes round the earth'. My reply was to hold out my hands with the palms upward, and raise them from my knees in a circular sweep, at the same time leaning backwards and assuming a dizzy expression. 'Exactly!' he said. In another case, I might have found that I could not supply any meaning other than that suggested by a naive conception, which could be destroyed by a question. The naive conception is really thoughtlessness, but it may take the power of a Copernicus effectively to call it in question. — G. E. M. Anscombe, An Introduction to Wittgenstein's Tractatus, Chap. 12
Does what I have said articulate what you mean here?Insofar as one reflectively reasons in order to critique and interpret norms (i.e. rules, criteria, methods, conventions, customs, givens), philosophy is performative. To say, for example, 'one ought to philosophize' does not seem a philosophical statement. — 180 Proof
At first I thought this was inconsistent, harking back to the idea that logic could be the basis of an ideal language, free of all the dross that natural languages carry. But perhaps he doesn't mean re-forming, changing, language, but grasping the order that is already there.PI 130 “Our clear and simple language-games are preparatory studies for future regularization of language--as it were first approximations, ignoring fiction and air-resistance. The language-games are rather set up as objects of comparison which are meant to throw light on the facts of our language by way not only of similarities, but also of dissimilarities.” — Richard B
Wittgenstein has, however, gone into history as someone who does not understand mathematics particularly well: — Tarskian
Wittgenstein's take on the matter was rejected unanimously: — Tarskian
Don't these terms - “Truth”, “Knowledge”, or “Free Will” - already have uses and meanings? So to my favourite quote form Austin:
First, words are our tools, and, as a minimum, we should use clean tools: we should know what we mean and what we do not, and we must forearm ourselves against the traps that language sets us. Secondly, words are not (except in their own little corner) facts or things: we need therefore to prise them off the world, to hold them apart from and against it, so that we can realize their inadequacies and arbitrariness, and can re-look at the world without blinkers. Thirdly, and more hopefully, our common stock of words embodies all the distinctions men have found worth drawing, and the connexions they have found worth making, in the lifetimes of many generations: these surely are likely to be more sound, since they have stood up to the long test of the survival of the fittest, and more subtle, at least in all ordinary and reasonably practical matters, than any that you or I are likely to think up in our arm-chairs of an afternoon—the most favoured alternative method. (Austin, J. L. “A Plea for Excuses: The Presidential Address”, Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society, 1957: 181–182) — Banno
But the whole point Wittgenstein's argument on the autonomy of mathematics systems is that a mathematical proposition is internally tied to its proof/proof system — Richard B
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Model_theory
In mathematical logic, model theory is the study of the relationship between formal theories (a collection of sentences in a formal language expressing statements about a mathematical structure), and their models (those structures in which the statements of the theory hold).
If dealing with autonomous calculi then no matter how similar the rules of the two systems might be, as long as they differ - as long as we are dealing with distinct mathematical systems - It make no sense to speak of the same proposition occurring in each. The most that can be concluded is that parallel propositions occur in the two systems which can easily be mapped onto each other. — Richard B
Hence Godel was barred by virtue of the logical grammar of mathematical proposition from claiming that he had constructed identical versions of the same mathematical proposition in two different systems. — Richard B
https://web.mat.bham.ac.uk/R.W.Kaye/publ/papers/finitesettheory/finitesettheory.pdf
The work described in this article starts with a piece of mathematical ‘folklore’ that is
‘well known’ but for which we know no satisfactory reference.
Folklore Result. The first-order theories Peano arithmetic and ZF set theory with the
axiom of infinity negated are equivalent, in the sense that each is interpretable in the
other and the interpretations are inverse to each other.
Perhaps the first and most obvious conclusion is that statements concerning the equiv-
alence of ‘Peano Arithmetic’ and ‘ZF with the axiom of infinity negated’ require some
care to formulate and prove. It is certainly true that PA and ‘ZF with the axiom of infin-
ity negated’ are equiconsistent for just about any sensible axiomatisation of the latter,
in the sense that interpretations exist in both directions.6 Probably this is the ‘folklore
result’ that most people remember. But for the finer result with interpretations inverse
to each other, careful axiomatisation of the set theory is required. A category theoretic
framework for interpretations is useful to direct attention to these refinements.
If one thinks about the various developments from, say, to Copernicus to Newton, "fixing the use of concepts in empirical propositions" seems like a more complicated process than this, and it might be thought to violate the purity of mathematical autonomy. The crucial step is the one from "mathematical hypothesis (which the theologians could accept) to description of reality, (which Newton's theory eventually achieved). True, the reality described was modified to accommodate this, but that itself raises questions about the autonomy of systems. I would prefer to say that the application of mathematical propositions to empirical propositions is an extension or development of their theoretical use. How could I rule out other extensions or developments?the meaning of a mathematical concept is not an object or 'configuration' but rather, the totality of rules governing the use of that concept in a calculus." Mathematical propositions are not about anything (in a descriptive sense) yet neither are they meaningless: they are norms of representation whose essence is to fix the use of concepts in empirical proposition. — Richard B
Surely the question whether Godel had or had not achieved that aim is a question for mathematicians. But mathematicians disagree, (don't they?) and perhaps Wittgenstein counts as a mathematician. So the question does not have a determinate answer. That seems to me to be closer to what one might call the truth. I do not rule out the possibility that mathematicians might eventually devise rules for the use of the relevant concepts that would resolve the question. Fortunately, I am barred from attempting the project.Hence Godel was barred by virtue of the logical grammar of mathematical proposition from claiming that he had constructed identical versions of the same mathematical proposition in two different systems. — Richard B
Except when we come to applied mathematics, when that issue becomes central."In Philosophical Remarks Wittgenstein insisted contra Hilbert that ' In mathematics, we cannot talk about systems in general, but only within systems. They are just what we can't talk about(PR 152). The argument as presented sounds dogmatic, but it follows from the preceding clarification of the meaning of mathematical propositions as determined by intraliguistic rules rather than a connection between language and reality. — Richard B
It is better to think that a word has the meaning someone has given to it than to think that the meaning of a word is an eternally existing (subsisting entity floating about in some alternative world. But at face value, for those of us using the words, that is simply false. We learn what words mean - we do not make it up; we discover what they mean (what the rules for its use are), or we do not learn to speak. So there can be a scientific investigation into what the word means - and how its meaning changes. To be sure, sometimes we know who gave a word its meaning, but even if it was coined by someone, its use is the result of a process of dissemination which is rarely documented and we do not altogether understand. But dictionaries often include remarks about it and it could be the object of a "scientific" investigation.From Wittgenstein Blue Book "Philosophers very often talk about investigating, analysis, the meaning of words. But let's not forget that word hasn't got a meaning given to it, as it were, by a power independent of us, so that there could be a kind of scientific investigation into what the word really means. A word has the meaning someone has given to it." — Richard B
"Overdo" is the right word, though whether it applies to specific texts is always going to be debateable. Ryle in "Dilemmas", as I recall, talks about technical and untechnical concepts and concepts that everyone uses whatever technical language they are using, rather than ordinary language.From Quine, Word and Object, "There are, however, philosophers who overdo this line of thought, treating ordinary language as sacrosanct. They exalt ordinary language to the exclusion of one of its own traits: its disposition to keep evolving." — Richard B
The difficulty is that I don't trust myself to dispense with all my selfish interests during this imaginative exercise. It is rather easy to say that if I was a slave, I would accept my slavery because those are the rules. It is equally easy to say that if I was a slave, I would do my level best to escape, despite the rules. For my money, it is much better to start where we are. Other people may start in different places. When we disagree, we shall have to have an argument. That's how it works. How can Rawls' exercise help? Back to ordinary language?from John Rawls "Principles of Justice", "My aim is to present a conception of justice which generalizes and carries to a higher level of abstraction the familiar theory of the social contract as found, say, in Locke, Rousseau, and Kant. In order to do this we are not to think of the original contract as one to enter a particular society or to set up a particular government. Rather, the guiding idea is that the principles of justice for the basic structure of society are the object of the original agreement. They are the principles that free and rationale persons concerned to further their own interests would accept in an initial position of equality defining the fundamental terms of their association — Richard B
he difficulty is that I don't trust myself to dispense with all my selfish interests during this imaginative exercise. It is rather easy to say that if I was a slave, I would accept my slavery because those are the rules. It is equally easy to say that if I was a slave, I would do my level best to escape, despite the rules. For my money, it is much better to start where we are. Other people may start in different places. When we disagree, we shall have to have an argument. That's how it works. How can Rawls' exercise help? Back to ordinary language? — Ludwig V
There's no reason why not. Nussbaum, Rawls, Russell, and Singer come to mind as stellar examples. It seems to me that WIttgenstein's practice was also at variance from his remarks about just describing. In his case, the business about saying and showing gives some sort of explanation.And why can't a philosopher do this, instead of sitting around and describing how the term is actually used. — Richard B
Nor did I mean to imply that he was. Criticizing Rawls doesn't mean that I think we should retreat to describing how the term is actually used. I rather think that the ordinary use of justice would almost certainly lead us to describe it as a term that is the ground of a battlefield, (intellectual and physical) rather than a coherent concept.My main point with this example is that Rawls is not looking to the ordinary use of "Just" to come up with his conception of "Justice" nor should he. — Richard B
I realise you don't mean that literally, but here's the problem - who is "we"? That's not just a problem for ordinary language philosophy. It's a common usage in philosophy to say "we" say this and that or "we think" this and that.Give me that "arm-chair" we can do better. — Richard B
It's a very distressing story. It does indeed throws into high relief the simple points that the ordinary is not the same for everyone, and not necessarily justifiable. I have not the slightest inclination to argue against either. If only it were possible to establish an agreement without using force....OK, for example, I live in an environment where "street justice" rules. ........... I understand its use, the action, and the context. — Richard B
It is better to think that a word has the meaning someone has given to it than to think that the meaning of a word is an eternally existing (subsisting entity floating about in some alternative world. But at face value, for those of us using the words, that is simply false. We learn what words mean - we do not make it up; we discover what they mean (what the rules for its use are), or we do not learn to speak. So there can be a scientific investigation into what the word means - and how its meaning changes. To be sure, sometimes we know who gave a word its meaning, but even if it was coined by someone, its use is the result of a process of dissemination which is rarely documented and we do not altogether understand. But dictionaries often include remarks about it and it could be the object of a "scientific" investigatio
And why can't a philosopher do this, instead of sitting around and describing how the term is actually used.
What's interesting is that the bolded is true in two senses. First, there is etymological analysis, looking at old texts to determine how some term came to mean what it does. But second, there is looking into the actual physical referents of words to see what they are. So for instance, we know a lot of things about water that we didn't know in 1700. Even grade school kids know that water is H2O. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Yes. We can discern in both practices what Derrida I believe calls the "wandering signifier". It doesn't half complicate philosophical analysis. We can also discern that "scientific" is not monolithic. We should not presuppose a single "scientific" method.First, there is etymological analysis, looking at old texts to determine how some term came to mean what it does. But second, there is looking into the actual physical referents of words to see what they are. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Yes. Terms like "actual physical referent" or "materialism" are increasingly difficult to use in philosophical discussion. That's one reason for doubting how useful the concept of a hermeneutic circle is. Language constantly seems to refer beyond itself, and our practices do not find it difficult to use those terms. Isn't that as good as it gets for defining an outside?If they undergo as much change as the terms for water , then isn’t a phrase like actual physical referent linguistically self-referential, belonging to the hermeneutic circle along with our changing terms for water, rather than sitting outside of it? — Joshs
That's right, of course. The question now is whether one can change the world from one's arm-chair. There's a lot of reason to say that one can. Of course, that might depend on what one regards as meaningful or real change. And yet, one needs a phrase to refer to idle speculation.That was Marx's point on Feuerbach: "philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways; the point is to change it!" - — Count Timothy von Icarus
If they undergo as much change as the terms for water , then isn’t a phrase like actual physical referent linguistically self-referential, belonging to the hermeneutic circle along with our changing terms for water, rather than sitting outside of it?
— Joshs
Yes. Terms like "actual physical referent" or "materialism" are increasingly difficult to use in philosophical discussion. That's one reason for doubting how useful the concept of a hermeneutic circle is. Language constantly seems to refer beyond itself, and our practices do not find it difficult to use those terms. Isn't that as good as it gets for defining an outside? — Ludwig V
No, we are not. But there are not dissimilar arguments in other quarters about the relationship of Language and Reality, which come to very different conclusions. Perhaps I should not have stuck my nose in. On the other hand, I shall have to look at Gadamer more closely. Thanks.I’m not sure we’re understanding ‘hermeneutic circle’ the same way. — Joshs
Get involved in philosophical discussions about knowledge, truth, language, consciousness, science, politics, religion, logic and mathematics, art, history, and lots more. No ads, no clutter, and very little agreement — just fascinating conversations.