Where above did I assert that self-consistency made an argument true? I didn't, which means I'm not incorrect, or at least you've not pointed out where."I'm trying to demonstrate its consistency with itself, despite your assertions that your premise "is well supported by hundreds of years of scientific experimentation, empirical evidence".
— noAxioms
This is incorrect, "consistency with itself" does not make it true, — Metaphysician Undercover
Given your beliefs, yes.You seem to be missing something. Time is passing do you not agree?
Of course. It takes time to say 'now'. I don't recall mentioning the time it takes to utter words.Things change as time passes. [...] By the time I say "now" things have changed.
I don't see how this follows, but if that's how you envision it, fine.Therefore there is no such thing as "the current state" of things.
At the time of the publishing of GR, he adopted the geometric interpretation of relativity, thus denying the reality of past, present, and future, and thus any different between these unreal things is irrelevant to the view. For example, a unicorn is different than a bandersnatch, and I don't have to deny that difference in order to posit a view in which neither of them exists.I don't think Einstein ever denied that there is a difference between past and future.
I agree that SR theory proper does not assert either premise. I don't think GR did either, but the theory was essentially unworkable without a geometric interpretation of relativity. I'm just reading this on wiki in the history section of spacetime, my bold:It's definitely not denied by Special Relativity nor General Relativity. There are those who interpret Special Relativity as forcing the conclusion that there is no real difference between future and past, but that conclusion requires another premise not provided by the theory, so I think it's a misinterpretation.
Minkowski's geometric interpretation of relativity was to prove vital to Einstein's development of his 1915 general theory of relativity, wherein he showed how mass and energy curve flat spacetime into a pseudo-Riemannian manifold.
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Einstein, for his part, was initially dismissive of Minkowski's geometric interpretation of special relativity, regarding it as überflüssige Gelehrsamkeit (superfluous learnedness). However, in order to complete his search for general relativity that started in 1907, the geometric interpretation of relativity proved to be vital, and in 1916, Einstein fully acknowledged his indebtedness to Minkowski, whose interpretation greatly facilitated the transition to general relativity. Since there are other types of spacetime, such as the curved spacetime of general relativity, the spacetime of special relativity is today known as Minkowski spacetime. — wiki
Again, I never asked you to alter your beliefs. I'm just demonstrating that the existence of an valid alternate view contradicts your assertion of the necessary truth of the opinions you hold. One opinion at least. Your beliefs are just that, not knowledge as you claim. Some of them are known to be false, as Tim Wood has pointed out.As I said, if you want me to drop my "biases" you need to give me reasons why I ought to. If your asking me to dismiss what I know to be true, just to accept what I know to be false, then forget it.
You're repeating yourself. See my quote that I left just above which answers this. By assuming a present, Aristotle's argument is inapplicable to a view that denies that premise, as does the geometric interpretation.The existence of a present moment is one of the premises of Aristotle's argument, so if that premise is wrong, his argument is unsound. How do you not see this? You claim to be 'trained in philosophy' and yet you don't see these trivial flaws in your argument. I have no training at all, but I at least took some courses requiring some basic elements of logic. You're the one who cannot back his assertions.
— noAxioms
Existence of a present moment is not the premise being discussed here I clarified that in the last post.
As I've told you, the premise provided by Aristotle is that there is a fundamental difference between past and future. The other premise is that two distinct, or different things require something which separates them, this constitutes "the difference" between them. Therefore there is something which separates past from future, and this is the present.
You honestly don't see the logical fallacy of this statement, do you?If my decision to accept this premise is an "uninformed" one then there must be evidence, information out there which demonstrates the falsity of my premise.
Again with this assertion that you cannot back. Name a single science experiment that predicts a different result given the geometric interpretation. You can't because there isn't one. You've reduced yourself to making up facts to support your case.Yes, my model defines the words differently. It has no 'the past' and 'the future', hence there is no issue to dodge. It denies the existence of such properties.
— noAxioms
Exactly! That demonstrates how you are asking me to dismiss science, in favour of science fiction.
You probably believe that as well, empirical evidence to the contrary notwithstanding.However, unlike what you claim, my mind remains open
The claim of such a distinction is yours, hence the burden of proof. That's another part of your philosophical training that seems not to have stuck.That's why I continue this discussion. As soon as you can produce any type of evidence or information, which reveals that the distinction between the past and the future might not be a real distinction, I'm ready to follow you into other possibilities.
Right, the universe does not consult with our laws of logic, but we must follow these laws if we wish to make a coherent description of the universe, it's convention. — Metaphysician Undercover
If a person's description fails to follow these laws, it is an inept description. — Metaphysician Undercover
If I ask you, is your car green, and you say sometimes it looks green, but other times it does not look green, you have given me an inept description. — Metaphysician Undercover
nept? Maybe incomplete. Not inept. — tim wood
No, a description which contains contradiction is inept. — Metaphysician Undercover
You were told incorrectly. This can be verified here on Earth where two clocks are kept at identical speed but one experiences far greater continuous force and corresponding acceleration (in a centrifuge say). They will remain in sync indefinitely. Application of force has no dilation effect on clocks.I have a question for you. I was told acceleration or the application of force on the male twin is what solves the twin paradox. Please explain. — Michael Lee
I have a question for you. I was told acceleration or the application of force on the male twin is what solves the twin paradox. Please explain. — Michael Lee
I looked at the comments first, and the common complaint is that he speaks to you as a child through the first 12 minutes, and then suddenly blurts the real answer in the final seconds and exits without explanation, and his wording is obfuscating if not wrong.See this video. Acceleration is the wrong answer.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GgvajuvSpF4&t=10s — tim wood
I have a question for you. I was told acceleration or the application of force on the male twin is what solves the twin paradox. Please explain. — Michael Lee
Acceleration by the traveler IS the cause of the age difference at the reunion, despite the various arguments to the contrary. For details, see my webpage: — Mike Fontenot
The trouble with this, as you would find if you watch the other video, is that the same "paradox" is observed in a (thought) experiment in which acceleration plays no part. — tim wood
Age is the red herring. The issue is the rates of the clocks. And you have just acknowledged that the non-acceleration three-traveler example is correct.The latter is younger than the home twin at the "reunion" by the same amount as the twins in the original scenario. The fallacy is that in the revised case, no one is surprised at the result, so there is no paradox to resolve. — Mike Fontenot
Please show it. And circular motion is always under acceleration. The velocity, in other words, is changing continuously.The second red herring is the case where the traveling twin circles the home twin, at a high constant speed. When he returns, she isn't older. But it's not hard to show that whenever the motion is perpendicular to the line connecting the two twins (which is always is, in the circular case), their rates of ageing will be equal. — Mike Fontenot
I agree that dismissing acceleration altogether is wrong. We seem to take apart Lincoln's dismissal of the 3-person scenario the same way. I would have explained the different ages in terms of moment-of-acceleration, something not often mentioned in explanations.There are two "red herring" examples that claim to prove that acceleration doesn't cause the time difference in the twins' ages at the reunion.
One is the example that uses three perpetually-inertial observers: the home twin, and two unrelated people. The fist unrelated person takes the place of the traveler on the outbound leg, and the second one takes the place of the traveler on the inbound leg. The latter is younger than the home twin at the "reunion" by the same amount as the twins in the original scenario. The fallacy is that in the revised case, no one is surprised at the result, so there is no paradox to resolve. — Mike Fontenot
Excuse me??? How do you figure this? H-K experiment demonstrates otherwise.The second red herring is the case where the traveling twin circles the home twin, at a high constant speed. When he returns, she isn't older.
Love to see you show this my friend.But it's not hard to show that whenever the motion is perpendicular to the line connecting the two twins (which is always is, in the circular case), their rates of ageing will be equal.
The acceleration doesn't matter in this case since it is perpendicular to the motion in the central frame. The changing velocity doesn't matter either since only the direction changes, not the magnitude. But there is nonzero magnitude, and thus there is dilation. Mike is wrong here.Please show it. And circular motion is always under acceleration. The velocity, in other words, is changing continuously. — tim wood
If they're separated, their computation of each other's ages is a frame dependent thing, but I agree that the answers agree in the two frames where each person respectively is stationary. There's no reason why some other frame might be chosen, despite your rather solipsistic way of having observers only compute their reality relative to their immediate frame.I garbled the answer for the circular case. Sorry. I should have said the linear acceleration causes the traveling twin and the home twin to disagree about their respective ages when they are separated. But in the circular motion case, they agree about their respective ages, even while they are separated. — Mike Fontenot
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