Is this assertion true? How can it be known to be true? Is this assertion false? How can it be known to be false? — ZzzoneiroCosm
The first phase of the domination of the economy over social life brought into the definition of all human realization the obvious degradation of being into having. The present phase of total occupation of social life by the accumulated results of the economy leads to a generalized sliding of having into appearing, from which all actual “having” must draw its immediate prestige and its ultimate function. — Debord
This is the principle of commodity fetishism, the domination of society by “intangible as well as tangible things,” which reaches its absolute fulfillment in the spectacle, where the tangible world is replaced by a selection of images which exist above it, and which simultaneously impose themselves as the tangible par excellence. — Debord
This is the principle of commodity fetishism, the domination of society by “intangible as well as tangible things,” which reaches its absolute fulfillment in the spectacle, where the tangible world is replaced by a selection of images which exist above it, and which simultaneously impose themselves as the tangible par excellence.
— Debord — jellyfish
Basically we’re able to more readily attach, and agree, on material measures and value. Does this ‘devalue’ human life? It is certainly not a huge leap to imagine that people, being difficult to measure with any reasonable precision, then become related to the value of measured materials they are surrounded by - and/or are skilled at producing. — I like sushi
A good share of humanity is simply irrelevant to capitalism — Bitter Crank
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