• Wallows
    9.6k
    Are all definitions stipulative definitions until people forget that they are?
  • tim wood
    3.4k
    Sure, why not?
  • Wallows
    9.6k


    Wikipedia provides the following:

    A stipulative definition is a type of definition in which a new or currently-existing term is given a new specific meaning for the purposes of argument or discussion in a given context. When the term already exists, this definition may, but does not necessarily, contradict the dictionary (lexical) definition of the term. Because of this, a stipulative definition cannot be "correct" or "incorrect"; it can only differ from other definitions, but it can be useful for its intended purpose.Stipulative Definition, Wiki

    So, stipulative definitions are tantamount to subjective descriptions or theorizing of events? When does a stipulative definition become an ordinary definition then? Are you basically saying that the two are the same?
  • tim wood
    3.4k
    Perhaps. When is a definition ever not stipulative. Always, at the beginning, it is stipulative, yes? That becomes common usage and along comes someone who stipulates for a then present purpose some other definition. It is then forgot, or replaces the old common meaning, or becomes a term-of-art.

    For TPF, I'd welcome a requirement that all the significant terms of an OP either have their definitions provided or stipulated. That alone would shut down a lot of so-called God posts and reduce other nonsense by about 78%.
  • Wallows
    9.6k
    Perhaps. When is a definition ever not stipulative.tim wood

    I don't know. That seems to be my main question here.

    For TPF, I'd welcome a requirement that all the significant terms of an OP either have their definitions provided or stipulated. That alone would shut down a lot of so-called God posts and reduce other nonsense by about 78%.tim wood

    Here's what I said a while ago. I still think it would be good to implement:

    https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/4310/on-stipulative-definitions
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