• Zoro
    1
    Hi, I need Urgent help in mathematical logic problem..
    Prove: Given a wff A and v, v’ some valuations, if for each p ∈ At(A)
    v(p) = v’(p) then v(A) = v’(A)
  • Mentalusion
    93
    It looks like you're trying to prove a substitution lemma, or something involving the substitution lemma (I'm assuming I understand the notation you're using). If I recall correctly, the proof proceeds by induction on the structure of the WFF. So, you will assume the truth of the antecedent, i.e. that for each p ∈ At(A), that v(p) = v'(p), then show the truth for each case of the WFF given the assumed truth of the antecedent and the rules for substitution....I think. Happy to be corrected if wrong.
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