• Shawn
    12.6k
    What do you call it when someone behaves contrary to what (to serve as an example) the Bible preaches and yet the person acts in the name of religiosity? I don't think hypocrisy nails the issue on the head adequately enough. I want to say it's willful ignorance, but that's not right either. The very fact that one would behave contrary to what something teaches indicates some lack in understanding of some facet or feature of an ideology or doctrinal truth. What is meant by "contrary" and "understanding" in this context?

    It just seems to me that you have a body of work, take again, for example, the Bible, with the potential to create inconsistency and misgivings about interpreting it that one never knows when they have the right understanding of it without divine intervention. So, how do you know when you've got it right, so to speak?

    I have an inkling that this is postmodernism incarnate. Namely, for anything that requires an interpretation of something (that 'something' being truth or 'Truth'), then there's always a chance for confusion to arise. Is this correct?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    And why isn't this modern science incarnate (aka the enemy of "postmodernism")? Namely, fallibility?Πετροκότσυφας

    Now, that you call it modern science, then I can't help but agree. Case closed?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Namely, fallibility?Πετροκότσυφας

    It's not so much as fallibility, as the rejection of any proper interpretation of things. I don't feel like it's fallibility though if that makes sense?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Any proper interpretation?Πετροκότσυφας

    Yeah.

    Are there more than one proper interpretations?Πετροκότσυφας

    Possibly.

    And to point out that there's always a chance of confusion regarding interpretation is the rejection of these proper interpretations?Πετροκότσυφας

    Yes.
  • BrianW
    999
    Say that I want to go to college, and I'm presented with three different options and after my research I conclude that college A seems the better option. Does that mean that I can't simultaneously hold that I might be wrong about this judgement?Πετροκότσυφας

    Perhaps.
    There is nothing wrong with doubt in the face of truth, as long as it fuels the impetus to seek that truth.
  • gurugeorge
    514
    The very fact that one would behave contrary to what something teaches indicates some lack in understanding of some facet or feature of an ideology or doctrinal truth.Posty McPostface

    Not necessarily, the person may just be struggling to overcome contrary tendencies in their psyche. "The spirit is willing but the flesh is weak," and all that.

    The key thing about most religious understandings is that they take man to be imperfect and his situation somewhat tragic. That's why hypocrisy isn't such a great evil to religious people, but something one can be forgiven for (within reason) provided they show contrition. That's why redemption is possible in most religious systems.

    That, and because God is understood to be the ultimate arbiter and judge, not other human beings (for one thing, God knows the real facts of the case, including all the sinner's hidden thoughts and deeds).
  • aporiap
    223

    Well you should just hope there's some other background information that gives clues about the author's intended meaning. Either way this idea there is no right interpretation is wrong... authors write with intended meaning - the proper interpretation is in line with whatever the intended meaning is.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Not necessarily, the person may just be struggling to overcome contrary tendencies in their psyche. "The spirit is willing but the flesh is weak," and all that.gurugeorge

    Yes; but, what about extending this argument to non-religious texts? Then can one ever be said to know something unless he or she isn't the author of it? It's as if a body of knowledge dies when the author does too. It's as if to present something contrary to what someone has spoken of, that misunderstanding arises. So, how do you prevent misunderstanding, then?
  • mcdoodle
    1.1k
    when someone behaves contrary to what (to serve as an example) the Bible preachesPosty McPostface

    I'm not a Christian but, or and, I don't understand the Bible as a consistent body of work that preaches one thing rather than another. Actually I find some of the most enjoyable sections, like the Song of Solomon or the parables of Jesus, to be where the narrative seems nothing like a guide to how one is to behave.

    So I feel that you target is more likely a person who avows one thing one day, and a contradictory thing another day, and won't see that they're contradictory. Faced with such people I confess that lately I am a bad Samaritan and pass by on the other side.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    To behave contrary to some doctrinal truth implies that there is 'Truth' in the matter or text. Is this a type of fallacy?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Otherwise I think it's fine to use whatever background context is there to limit possible interpretations and then choose the one involving the least contradiction.aporiap

    So, the absence of contradiction is indicative of understanding a text, correct?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    I don't understand the Bible as a consistent body of work that preaches one thing rather than another.mcdoodle

    Then, shouldn't every text be made so that there's the least amount of possibility of contradiction in it, therefore someone may feel as though they understand it appropriately? But, how do you ensure this important feature of any text???
  • aporiap
    223

    So, the absence of contradiction is indicative of understanding a text, correct?
    I'm not sure it's indicative of understanding; maybe you can have more than one logically valid interpretations of a text but they'd all be equally plausible as the meaning. You can only have understanding if you have direct access to the author's intended meaning.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    I guess, if anyone is interested, then the point, I think, is how to ensure that the rules of the language game are being followed correctly? It only seems that one is following the rules correctly as long as no contradictions arise.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    I'm not sure it's indicative of understanding; maybe you can have more than one logically valid interpretations of a text but they'd all be equally plausible as the meaning. You can only have understanding if you have direct access to the author's intended meaning.aporiap

    Well, yes. The absence of non-sequiturs implies that one understands something. Therefore, how do you lessen the chance of a non-sequitur from arising at all? Through consistency? But, how do you arrive at consistency without contradictions?
  • mcdoodle
    1.1k
    Then, shouldn't every text be made so that there's the least amount of possibility of contradiction in it, therefore someone may feel as though they understand it appropriately? But, how do you ensure this important feature of any text???Posty McPostface

    I confess I feel rather the opposite. Why should texts obey some principle of non-contradiction? This would be the dream of an authoritarian, surely? Non-contradiction happens in logic, perhaps, but as soon as we use natural language it creeps in. And creeps, and creeps.

    Certain texts may be regarded as some sort of guidance to behaviour, but how are humans to be governed in this way? As soon as I read 'Thou shalt not'...' written say by some stuffy patriarch, I want to go looking for a fellow-transgressor.

    Hello again, btw, Posty. Hope you're well.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Why should texts obey some principle of non-contradiction?mcdoodle

    To ensure consistency and the least amount of misunderstanding? Sure, such texts are boring since there's nothing to criticise, but, at least they are logically sound.

    This would be the dream of an authoritarian, surely?mcdoodle

    You can call it mathematics, or the laws of nature if there's such a negative connotation with associating humans with it.

    Non-contradiction happens in logic, perhaps, but as soon as we use natural language it creeps in. And creeps, and creeps.mcdoodle

    Well, yes, formal languages are devoid of this feature. So, then why are non-formal languages so rife with the possibility for inconsistency?

    Hello again, btw, Posty. Hope you're well.mcdoodle

    Nice to see you mcdoodle. It's a shame the Wittgenstein reading group thread died; but, oh well.
  • aporiap
    223
    Well, yes. The absence of non-sequiturs implies that one understands something. Therefore, how do you lessen the chance of a non-sequitur from arising at all? Through consistency? But, how do you arrive at consistency without contradictions?
    I'm not sure I understand the bolded. Wouldn't consistency imply lack of contradiction. Also I think what's really important to avoid presence of multiple, plausible, consistent interpretations is specificity and clarity in writing as opposed to ambiguity.
  • aporiap
    223
    I confess I feel rather the opposite. Why should texts obey some principle of non-contradiction? This would be the dream of an authoritarian, surely? Non-contradiction happens in logic, perhaps, but as soon as we use natural language it creeps in. And creeps, and creeps.

    Certain texts may be regarded as some sort of guidance to behaviour, but how are humans to be governed in this way? As soon as I read 'Thou shalt not'...' written say by some stuffy patriarch, I want to go looking for a fellow-transgressor.

    Hello again, btw, Posty. Hope you're well.
    Doesn't it depend on the purpose of the text? If it's an artwork then it's fine to have contradictions on the literal meaning level, the writing expresses some latent concept or emotion then it's understandable. If it's an expository work intended to communicate some specific information then it shouldn't have contradiction right
  • Shawn
    12.6k


    Well yes, I think so. But what do you call it when someone commits an error in interpreting it as consistent but behaves inconsistently with regards to it? Is that some error or fallacy?
  • aporiap
    223
    Well yes, I think so. But what do you call it when someone commits an error in interpreting it as consistent but behaves inconsistently with regards to it? Is that some error or fallacy?
    I think it'd be an error. He may be behaving consistently with respect to his interpretation but ultimately it's an error.
  • Shawn
    12.6k


    But, can't this be said of everything epistemological? When can there be certainty when we don't know when no further contradictory statements can arise? It's almost as if wanting to have your cake and eat it too...
  • aporiap
    223
    Can you give an example of what you mean? I'm unsure I understand the issue.
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Can you give an example of what you mean? I'm unsure I understand the issue.aporiap

    Well, suppose that we're talking about some doctrinal truth, and we both have perfect knowledge of it. We're we to discuss it we could go on for ages without ever making an error in consistency.

    How do we know that what we're talking about is true and accurate if no inconsistency ever arose?
  • aporiap
    223

    We'd know because we can contrast our consistent statements with imagined contradictions, e.g possible statements that contradict our doctrine.
  • Shawn
    12.6k


    What if the doctrine in principle could not have contradictions? Is that something possible? Everything would simply flow effortlessly.
  • Benkei
    7.2k
    Morally bankrupt?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Morally bankrupt?Benkei

    It seems to me more of an unconscious thing, due to lack of knowledge or such rather than an activity.
  • Benkei
    7.2k
    Simply amoral as opposed to immoral?
  • Shawn
    12.6k
    Simply amoral as opposed to immoral?Benkei

    I guess. But, since you can't put a finger on the epistemic component of the issue, then is morality involved at all?

    Again, I bring up the issue of not knowing something unless a contradiction can be spotted.
  • mcdoodle
    1.1k
    Well, yes, formal languages are devoid of this feature. So, then why are non-formal languages so rife with the possibility for inconsistency?Posty McPostface

    Non-formal languages are languages of communication. There was a notion from Frege onwards that somehow a more 'scientific' language might be developed, but it never comes to pass.

    There is, for utmost clarity, the language of mathematics. There is, for how we get along, natural language. The latter is just untame-able. Why would it not be? What would be the virtue of inconsistency, certainly in matters other than factual ones?
bold
italic
underline
strike
code
quote
ulist
image
url
mention
reveal
youtube
tweet
Add a Comment

Welcome to The Philosophy Forum!

Get involved in philosophical discussions about knowledge, truth, language, consciousness, science, politics, religion, logic and mathematics, art, history, and lots more. No ads, no clutter, and very little agreement — just fascinating conversations.