• de la Cruz
    2
    Hello everyone. I'm reading the chapter "The Problem Of Socrates" in Twilight of the Idols" and at topic 2 Nietzsche says:
    "The consensus of the sages — I recognized this ever more clearly — proves least of all that they were right in what they agreed on: it shows rather that they themselves, these wisest men, shared some physiological attribute, and because of this adopted the same negative attitude to life".

    What did he mean when write about "physiological attribute"?

    And another question is at topic 10 when he write:

    "The fanaticism with which all Greek reflection throws itself upon rationality betrays a desperate situation; there was danger, there was but one choice: either to perish or — to be absurdly rational. The moralism of the Greek philosophers from Plato on is pathologically conditioned; so is [...]"

    What did he mean when write about the "moral pathologically conditioned"?

    In advance I would like to thanks for all and apologize if the questions are too amateurs! :smile:
  • TheMadFool
    5.3k
    Perhaps rational and irrational aren't the only two options we have.

    Perhaps it's a circle of sorts and at the extremes one blends into the other. Haven't we all heard of stories of the idiot savant and people saying "there's method to his madness"?

    Was Nietzsche making an argument (that would be self-defeating) or was he voicing an opinion (that's ok)?
  • de la Cruz
    2
    But why the argument would be self-defeating? I can't understand it.
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