• Relinquish
    2
    Evidently, there is an apparent "inside" (e.g. me), and an apparent "outside" (e.g. not me).

    Logically, the "inside" cannot possibly be "not outside" (as it is) in the absence of an "outside", just as the "outside" cannot possibly be "not inside" (as it is) in the absence of an "inside".

    To hypothetically elaborate, if the "inside" were to somehow completely annihilate the "outside", the "inside" would no longer be able to BE "not outside", and so would no longer be able to BE the "inside".

    Conversely, if the "outside" were to somehow completely annihilate the "inside", the "outside" would no longer be able to BE "not inside", and so would no longer be able to BE the "outside".

    In this way, the very IDENTITY of the "inside" fundamentally includes the "outside" WITHIN itself, just as the very IDENTITY of the "outside" fundamentally includes the "inside" WITHIN itself.

    This being the case, neither the "inside" nor the "outside" can ACTUALLY be the solely self-inclusive entities that they conceptually SEEM to be, but rather, are both justifiably regardable as "presently apparent features of Existence Itself".

    Logically, there can be no reason why Existence Itself has ANY apparent features at all, let alone THESE apparent features.

    Evidently, this is simply It's nature.

    Just as an ocean is one water that IS many waves, Existence Itself is one permanent substance that IS many impermanent forms.

    In this way, many EQUALS one.....
  • T Clark
    13k
    Ok. Now what? Why is it significant?
  • jgill
    3.5k
    Just as an ocean is one water that IS many waves, Existence Itself is one permanent substance that IS many impermanent formsRelinquish

    Pleasant observation. :chin:
  • Banno
    23.1k
    Evidently, there is an apparent "inside" (e.g. me), and an apparent "outside" (e.g. not me).Relinquish

    Why?
  • Mikie
    6.1k
    Evidently, there is an apparent "inside" (e.g. me), and an apparent "outside" (e.g. not me).Relinquish

    Nope. Already way too much baggage here.
  • Gregory
    4.6k


    Is this related to Kant?
  • jgill
    3.5k
    Is this related to Kant?Gregory

    It Kant be.
  • Nils Loc
    1.3k
    Is there really (apparently) just one substance?
  • Agent Smith
    9.5k
    Apophatic vicious circle (loop):

    What is inside?

    Not outside!

    What is outside?

    Not inside!

    1 is Not 0 and 0 is Not 1 where the only possibilities are 1 and 0.

    1 = ~0 and 0 = ~1. Aye!

    ---

    Not that 1 isn't 0 and 0 isn't 1.

    ~1 = 0 and ~0 = 1. Nay!

    :snicker:

    I don't wanna know what it isn't. I wanna know what it is! — Capt. James T. Kirk of the Starship Enterprise

    Math to the rescue! How exactly? :snicker:
  • Tate
    1.4k
    In this way, many EQUALS one.....Relinquish

    Yes.
  • Agent Smith
    9.5k
    Well, it feels right to say that opposites make sense i.e. are imbued with meaning only with respect to each other (one can't exist without the other). Thus, from a dualistic perspective, we must take both (all) or neither (nothing) - it's impossible to decouple a thing from its opposite herein meant as a thing and its negation. Mutual dependence ensures that both live or both die. In this sense, OP, the many two are one. :snicker:
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