So there was more than one question raised:
Why is subjective morality respected?
Why use or defend a subjective metric in a universe that has proven to be entirely defined by objective metrics?
Is subjective morality respected, and if so, who respects it and who does not? In my mind, the question reads more like "should subjective morality be respected", and to carry that forward in accordance to the actual title of the post; "Should subjective morality be respected over objective morality?". Morality is simultaneously the principles we use to guide our actions and choices and what we use then to judge said actions and choices. That being said, the question can be reduced to; "How do we judge how to judge?". The first question as originally stated almost presupposes that objective morality and subjective morality exist in mutual exclusivity within individuals who "subscribe" to either one or the other, as if this dichotomy represents a real or conscious choice in most people and as if this is a distinction that most people make insofar as to which one to respect as being valid. The original post then quickly moves on to more of a commentary on ethics. This, of course, is always the efficacy and progression when speaking to morality, as ethics represents what one actually does or chooses to do. I don't think it can be said that all actions and choice are driven solely by morality, nor do I think all actions and choices could be said to not have some consideration to one's morality.
One of my pet peeves is the use of the term "common sense" in lieu of "conventional wisdom" when the latter is almost always what means to be conveyed. In that light, I think the one who posed these questions and I have different associations in certain relationships between morality and ethics. I've always associated objective morality with deontological ethics and subjective morality with utilitarian ethics. My thinking here is that deontological ethics seem to rise from something relatively tangible, so to a sense, objective. For example, a written religious or doctrinal code or set of laws. (I'm not going to bring up metaethics vs normative ethics because: reasons
:p) Subjective morality, in terms of my association with it and utilitarian ethics, seems to be driven more by consensus or the judgment (conventional wisdom) of the "collective" and not a tangible or explicitly written code or doctrine.
Laws, then, can be said to derive from both "schools of thought", as some seem to be more universal (deontological) and some are relative and evolve over time (utilitarian)(and I'm aware that this statement does not encompass the primary distinctions between the two). Aside from the extremes of fundamentalism and radicalism/absolutism, I don't believe that it is a question of which is superior (subjective or objective morality), rather it is an observation of the hybridization of the two within cultures, societies, and legal systems. Now this is sort of digressing to discussing moral relativism which may be simultaneously relevant to the topic and tangential to my points. I suppose what I am trying to say is that in practice and in my observations, most people tend to vacillate between deontological ethics and utilitarian ethics... essentially moral particularism, regardless of what they consider their morality to be. This, of course, leads to Trolley Problems and all those neat little things that attempt to exemplify each course. So, to answer the first question: It's relative! (don't hate me).
So, on to the second question... This again represents a dichotomy that may not be mutually exclusive. I think it speaks more to intent vs. action, which again is related to deontological ethics vs. utilitarian ethics. If the intention or imperative in one's mind is adherence to deontological ethics, then the consequences and results of their actions are immaterial, and conversely, if they are adhering to utilitarian ethics they are only concerned with the consequences and intended outcome. Moral particularism takes the question of superiority out of the equation and also removes the assumption of the mutually exclusive dichotomy. Is there a metric that measures existence or the weighing of a choice within one's mind? A metric can be a way of saying a judgement.. an observation.. perception itself.. So then, this maybe becomes a discussion on objective existence and subjective existence. I think the sentiment behind the second question may be partly influenced by certain sentiments in modern politics, which is that acting or thinking based on feelings (or emotions) is weak in comparison to adhering to a set of values in accordance to a set of beliefs or a creed... or at least I see some commonality. Therein lies the problem in my opinion, in this conflation. It seems we are arguing within the scope of how objective and subjective are used in regard to social phenomena and policy as if they are applicable in the same way as empiricism and theory are in the broad field of physical science. So to answer the second question; I don't believe there is a need to defend one over the other, rather one should be able to weigh each individual choice or course of action as a confluence of experience, beliefs, ideas, thoughts, education, theories, and perception of reality. I don't believe there can be one overarching way to "calculate morality" and take all the nuance out of something inherently more complex than a simple dichotomy.
This is my first time here and my first comment. I am not formally educated in any of this and so hopefully I don't come off as too much of a noob.