Yes, that is a very good distinction. But i think that a priori applied to space as a pure intuition has a different nuance that when applied to judgements.

Thank you very much, Wayfarer, for your answer and your welcome!

You say "since Kant's time the idea of a reference frame has been discovered, which is seen to cast doubt on such ideas." I think this is the crux of my question, which could be reformulated as: can we satisfactorily maintain the status of space and time as pure intuitions, even for non Euclidean geometries or for nonclassical physics?
Does, for instance, the 'reference frame' of non Euclidean geometry have an a priori content?