I have re-evaluated. In the absence of any argument that rationally demonstrates that there is an objective morality, let alone how that morality would judge actions, it is not being intellectually honest to say that any action is objectively good or bad. I'm open to objective morality, but still haven't seen a good argument for it. — SonJnana
This doesn't sound quite right, since it's question-begging. Why should morality, in the absence of any argument that demonstrates it to be objective, be seen as not-objective? Why shouldn't the opposite be the case? Why shouldn't
you have to demonstrate the morality is not-objective? After all, morality certainly seems to appear to us as "objective", as a command-from-afar, an
imperative, something we
must do out of free will.
To put the "burden of proof" on the moral realist is question-begging because it only makes any sense at all if we already assume certain other metaphysical notions: notions that (if we are to discuss philosophy) need to be argued for (which would then just lead into an argument for moral anti-realism).
So you probably are assuming something along the lines of a "modern" naturalistic picture of the universe: the world operates (mechanically? statistically?) by certain "laws" that are discovered by science, and part of this includes the rejection of any sort of non-physical "stuff". Objective morals are seen as necessarily being non-physical, and thus we can assume they do not exist given the prevailing physicalist framework.
Okay. You may believe this is true. But you need to
argue this to be true. For someone like myself is going to deny that physicalism is true, and a realist naturalist is going to deny that objective morals have to be non-physical. You can't just assume this naturalist framework is true, because not everyone agrees with it.
I agree right and wrong aren't the same think as like and dislike. My point is that we claim to say something is right or wrong based off of our preferences. If I like to live in a stable society, I may say murder is wrong. But when we say something is immoral, we're using the standard of our own personal moral code which is based off of our like and dislikes. Or maybe it's because it was socially conditioned and any other moral code is too uncomfortable. Or maybe it seems intuitive because of the person's genes. Or maybe the person themselves beleives something is objectively right or wrong. — SonJnana
The ambiguity here is with your claim that morality is "based" on our preferences. I'm not sure what this exactly means. You say right and wrong are different than like and dislike, so as to regard them as separate things. But you say we claim something is right or wrong based off of our preferences. Since you deny preferences (like and dislike) are identical to right and wrong, and want to argue for anti-realism, you're effectively left with error theory: we have concepts of right and wrong, but they never are instantiated because there are no such things as objective right and wrong moral truths.
You claim that if I want to live in a stable society, I may say murder is wrong. Thus it seems as though you see morality as something people use for their own benefit. But this makes it ambiguous, still, as thus statements like "murder is wrong" seems to be basically saying "do not murder because I want to live in stable society". Yet I will press you on this - is this
really what we mean? Do we
really think something is moral or immoral based on our contingent preferences? Because it seems obvious to me that the two statements are not equivalent in any sense. One is a moral imperative and the other is non-moral supplication.
The difference between non-cognitivism and error theory is basically that of truth-aptness. Non-cognitivists think moral claims are expressions, say, of emotions or preferences, which themselves cannot have any truth value. Liking chocolate is not a truth claim. Whereas error theorists claim that moral propositions are truth-apt: saying "murder is wrong" is literally saying that murder is something: it is
wrong. What separates the error theorist from the moral realist (they are both
cognitivist positions) is that the error theorist denies there is anything real about right or wrong (or good and bad, etc).
You have said that the moral realist must provide the demonstration, but you yourself have offered mostly "maybes": maybe morality is socially conditioned, maybe it's "because of someone's genes", maybe they're fooling themselves, etc. You'll need to provide more to convince someone.
So in conclusion there are two things I think you need to explain and clarify:
1.) the general metaphysical framework you are coming from (including what you think objective morals are/must be), and
2.) what the claim "morality is based on preferences" ultimately amounts to, because although I think you wish to present something along the lines of error theory, you nevertheless seem to also vacillate into non-cognitivism.