• Patterner
    594

    Yup. From what we have seen of quantum fluctuations, we know that's a possibility, given enough time?
  • wonderer1
    1.8k
    I'm then questioning his suggestion that we can dismiss the conclusion that we are most likely Boltzmann brains a priori, as that then entails that we can dismiss some empirically well-supported scientific model a priori. For example, as per RogueAI's comment above, one supposed solution is to dismiss (4) a priori. Is that really rational?Michael

    First off, I don't know what you might be referring to with "really rational". As members of a social primate species go, (a social primate species which only began to develop literacy ~5500 years ago) I'd say Carroll is one of the more rational ones.

    You see, there is empirical evidence we can intersubjectively consider, for a wide variety of scientific matters outside of physics. Carroll is certainly not ignorant of sciences outside of physics. It seems likely Carroll is inclined to consider The Big Picture.
  • wonderer1
    1.8k
    Yup. From what we have seen of quantum fluctuations, we know that's a possibility, given enough time?Patterner

    I'm not sure how we could say we know that.
  • Janus
    15.6k
    If our scientific models entail that we are most likely Boltzmann brains, and if our scientific models are correct, then we are most likely Boltzmann brains.

    If our scientific models entail that we are most likely Boltzmann brains, and if we are not most likely Boltzmann brains, then our scientific models are incorrect.
    Michael

    Both these sentences above are mere tautologies.

    If we are most likely BBs then our scientific theories are most likely incorrect, which means that their entailing that we are BBs is most likely incorrect, the point being that we cannot coherently use scientific theories to draw the conclusion that we are most likely BBs. As far as I can tell, and in the absence of any cogent counterargument to this, that is the end of the story.
  • Patterner
    594
    Yup. From what we have seen of quantum fluctuations, we know that's a possibility, given enough time?
    — Patterner

    I'm not sure how we could say we know that.
    wonderer1
    Me either.

    If we are most likely BBs...Janus
    Not we. It's just me. The rest of you are false memories.
  • Janus
    15.6k
    Not we. It's just me. The rest of you are false memories.Patterner

    There are many memories of me, whether false or not, and you don't have hardly any of them.
  • Patterner
    594

    That's just something programmed into my false memories.
  • Patterner
    594
    Talking as if memories are distinct entities, things that can be stored, seems mistaken to me.creativesoul
    Memories are stored, are they not? In the brain, in some physical manner.
  • Janus
    15.6k
    That's just something programmed into my false memories.Patterner

    How do you know that, or even how to understand what I am asking you, if all your memories are false?

    Memories are stored, are they not? In the brain, in some physical manner.Patterner

    No, that is a false memory of some knowledge you imagined you had.
  • Patterner
    594
    No, that is a false memory of some knowledge you imagined you had.Janus
    Silence, false memory! i'm trying to have a conversation with Boltzman!
  • Janus
    15.6k
    Don't bother, your memory of it will be an illusion anyway.
  • Michael
    14.4k
    the point being that we cannot coherently use scientific theories to draw the conclusion that we are most likely BBsJanus

    The consequence of this is that even though we have strong a posteriori evidence for some scientific theory we can rule it out a priori. That seems quite significant.

    See the argument here.

    Either we know a priori that the universe will not succumb to heat death and expand forever or we know a priori that quantum fluctuations do not happen (or that if they do happen that they cannot form brain-like structures).

    Does that seem rational? Or is it just more rational than accepting the possibility that we are most likely Boltzmann brains?

    One possible solution is to reject the premise that we ought reason as if we are randomly selected from the set of all observers with experiences like ours (and so that there is some third alternative to SSA and SIA). We accept that heat death and eternal expansion will happen, we accept that quantum fluctuations will form significantly more Boltzmann brains than normal observers have ever existed, but we don't accept that we are most likely one of these Boltzmann brains. Although I'm unsure how to justify this.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    How many virtual particles have been observed in the same place at the same time?Patterner

    The thing is that virtual particles are not observed.
  • Patterner
    594
    The thing is that virtual particles are not observed.Lionino
    Well, whatever way it is that we know they exist.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    Well, whatever way it is that we know they exist.Patterner

    I tried looking up some educative articles on the matter but none of them were complete. If it is in your interest, you can try. In any case, the short answer is that you can have as many "particles" as you want, it is simply less likely the more particles you want to have.

    Your objection is roughly that we need a great number of particles before making a brain, that is something that was discussed starting here.
  • Janus
    15.6k
    Does that seem rational? Or is it just more rational than accepting the possibility that we are most likely Boltzmann brains?Michael

    I had already seen the argument and commented on it previously. I like to keep it simple. The Heat Death may be the most favored current scenario, and it may be more rigorously supported than the idea of random particles forming Boltzmann Brains. So I don't think the two necessarily go hand in hand.

    If we were Boltzmann brains all bets would be off and none of our theories would have any support. I see that as a simple refutation of the idea. If you don't agree that's fine then we are not going to agree is all. Does it even matter whether we are Boltzmann brains or not? Would it change anything about how you live your life?
  • creativesoul
    11.6k
    Talking as if memories are distinct entities, things that can be stored, seems mistaken to me.
    — creativesoul
    Memories are stored, are they not? In the brain, in some physical manner.
    Patterner

    Well, we say that memories are stored. It is common parlance. It's a useful but very misleading analogy. I suppose what I'm getting at with this point is that it is as a result of how memories emerge and 'persist' that we can know it is impossible to reconfigure them without also reconfiguring everything that they are existentially dependent upon. That includes far more than just the biological material/structures of the human brain.

    So, it's not even a possibility. Logical possibility perhaps, but what else would have to be the case in order for that to happen? It does not follow from the fact that we can imagine some possible world in which Boltzmann brains could emerge, that this world is that one.
  • creativesoul
    11.6k
    We accept that heat death and eternal expansion will happen, we accept that quantum fluctuations will form significantly more Boltzmann brains than normal observers have ever existed, but we don't accept that we are most likely one of these Boltzmann brains. Although I'm unsure how to justify this.Michael

    Show that Boltzmann brains are not equivalent to normal human observers.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    As an afterthought, this argument here:

    That is a possible argument against solipsism, that all the body of knowledge produced so far is generated/contained by/in my mind, and yet we struggled with Abstract Algebra 2.Lionino

    is just a case of (simplified):

    A: My mind is the collection of things I am aware of.
    B: There are things in the world I am not aware of.
    C: Therefore there are things outside of my mind.

    Which is that there is scientific knowledge to be learned, the fact I don't have this knowledge implies there are some things that I am not aware of, therefore there are things outside of my mind. There is some X I am unaware of, X is outside of my mind, there are things outside of my mind. But this only works because the implication {unaware of X} → {X outside of mind} is accepted, and it can be assumed only if we define my mind in such a way (A) to rule out the existence of some unknown-to-me part of my mind. A semantic argument therefore.

    Which I said here:

    but it works, in my view, because I redefine mind to exclude involuntary aspects. It works because it satisfactorily counters solipsism in its semantics. It does not defeat idealism or pan-psychism or open individualism or a blend of all those, because the world could still be fundamentally made of mind-stuff, or we and the world are the mind of god a la SpinozaLionino
  • Patterner
    594
    I tried looking up some educative articles on the matter but none of them were complete. If it is in your interest, you can try. In any case, the short answer is that you can have as many "particles" as you want, it is simply less likely the more particles you want to have.

    Your objection is roughly that we need a great number of particles before making a brain, that is something that was discussed starting here.
    Lionino
    Yes, I read and watch videos. I'll never understand the physics to any degree, but I try to get the jist of things. Sadly, I can't say the jist is forthcoming. Here's one answer on quara:
    Virtual particles are just mathematical tools for calculations of particle interactions. They only exist on paper - they cannot be observed in nature.

    Furthermore, virtual particles are exactly the same particles as "normal matter" particles. Virtual particles are just normal particles that we artificially add to interactions when using a calculation method called perturbation theory.
    If that person is right, then I don't see Boltzman Brains coming from virtual particles.

    Wiki says this:
    Virtual particles do not necessarily carry the same mass as the corresponding ordinary particle, although they always conserve energy and momentum.
    If virtual particles did manage to form a BB, I have to wonder if the different mass would affect the brain's functioning.

    Wiki also says this:
    Vacuum fluctuations appear as virtual particles, which are always created in particle–antiparticle pairs.
    If every particle in my brain suddenly got its antiparticle right next to it, would my brain continue to function? Would a brain formed by virtual particles, each of which is accompanied by its antiparticle, function for even the instant required, before the particles and antiparticles all annihilated each other?


    But Brian Greene doesn't seem to be talking about virtual particles when he talks about Boltzman Brains. Like in this video:
    https://youtu.be/gtlWS9TaCnQ?si=50MW6PmUcgQVq1jR
  • Corvus
    3k
    B: There are things in the world I am not aware of.Lionino
    Could this be an implication of accepting the Kantian thing-in-itself in empirical world? Or does it mean just there are things that you have no experience of, therefore no awareness of them?
  • Corvus
    3k
    B: There are things in the world I am not aware of.
    C: Therefore there are things outside of my mind.
    Lionino
    Not sure if B entails C. Because if you are not aware of the things in the world, then how do you know there are things outside of your mind?

    Which is that there is scientific knowledge to be learned, the fact I don't have this knowledge implies there are some things that I am not aware of, therefore there are things outside of my mind. There is some X I am unaware of, X is outside of my mind, there are things outside of my mind. But this only works because the implication {unaware of X} → {X outside of mind} is accepted, and it can be assumed only if we define my mind in such a way (A) to rule out the existence of some unknown-to-me part of my mind. A semantic argument therefore.Lionino
    Yes, you have given out your reason for the conclusion, but I am not sure if a semantic argument would be enough evidence for the ground. Because your language reflects the content of your mind, but not the other way around i.e. your belief is not based on what you said.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    There is a lot of misconceptions and confusions about the topic, even on written sources on the internet. As aforementioned, I genuinely failed to find good sources on the topic. Based on my own readings and layman understanding on the topic, it is so that spontaneous generation of particles can happen due to either quantum fluctuations (related to Hawking radiation) or nucleation. Virtual pair particles are entangled, which does not mean necessarily that they will be right next to each other (whatever that means), I think this is related to Heisenberg's uncertainty inequality.

    If virtual particles did manage to form a BB, I have to wonder if the different mass would affect the brain's functioning.Patterner

    Perhaps, but the quote says "necessarily", which implies it might have the same mass.

    These links are not bad though some do represent writer bias.
    https://sites.pitt.edu/~jdnorton/Goodies/Boltzmann_Brain/Boltzmann_Brain.html
    https://bigthink.com/hard-science/boltzmann-brain-nothing-is-real/
    https://clearlyexplained.com/boltzmann-brains/index.html
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Kn5PMa5xRq4
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=E7pakDMnuMY

    I, personally, don't think we are Boltzmann brains physically speaking, even though I am not completely convinced against solipsism as a metaphysical idea.
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    Could this be an implication of accepting the Kantian thing-in-itself in empirical world?Corvus

    I think the Ding an sich is an epistemological being, not an ontological one.
    Kant never denied the existence of material things.
    [...]
    By referring to the ‘something’ that affects our sensibility and, hence, produces representations, Kant follows what he elsewhere terms Locke’s physiology of the human understanding (cf. A IX). Yet he goes on to note that we do not have to conceive of the ‘something’ that underlies appearances as a material object. It might as well be considered as something that is immaterial and can only be thought.
    [...]
    As we will see, Kant accepts the Leibnizian view that a non-material something must be considered to underlie appearances. Yet he does not identify the latter with the ‘something’ that is said to affect our sensibility
    [from a footnote]
    Jacobi implicitly identifies both the terms ‘transcendental object’ and ‘thing in itself’ with material objects that exist independently of the subject, something that in my view is not warranted.
    Kant’s Multi-Layered Conception of Things in Themselves

    But that is the matter of whether the Ding an sich is ideal or double or monadic or material or whatever. Whether the noumenon is automatically an outside world, whether mental or physical, is another question. Since the very idea of noumenon assumes of a world besides the perception of a transcendental agent, it would make sense that without the noumenon there is nothing to perceive. I think the semantics of Vorstellung pretty much imply an outside world, so solipsism implies no Vorstellung. Coming up with a view in which there are things outside of perception and yet solipsism obtain seems to be a contradiction of the semantics of solipsism.

    So to answer your question, yes.

    Or does it mean just there are things that you have no experience of, therefore no awareness of them?Corvus

    I think this is somewhat answered above. You could say you have mental objects which you don't experience (in the sense of perceiving), but I think that sentence is nonsensical.

    Yes, you have given out your reason for the conclusion, but I am not sure if a semantic argument would be enough evidence for the ground. Because your language reflects the content of your mind, but not the other way around i.e. your belief is not based on what you said.Corvus

    Naturally language reflects mind (to some extent at least). But it is a simple argument that, if we redefine the word mind, solipsism in our vocabulary can be immediately tagged as 'false' as soon as a quick introspection shows there are things in my mind whose origin I don't know — whether these things come from the vat holding my brain, from idealism, I don't know. I believe a Roman philosopher would promptly accept that there must be things outside of his animus, as that is what the meaning of those words imply.

    Edit: solipsism implies no Vorstellung.
  • Patterner
    594
    Virtual pair particles are entangled, which does not mean necessarily that they will be right next to each otherLionino
    Interesting point.

    (whatever that means)Lionino
    This, too. :grin:

    I, personally, don't think we are Boltzmann brains physically speaking...Lionino
    I believe things are as they seem, until there is reason to believe otherwise.

    And I think BBs are an absurd idea. I assume it will be proven impossible at some point. And I'm sure we'll never see a Boltzman anything, despite the fact that there are an infinite number of things other than brains that could be Boltzmanned.

    Thanks for the links. I had only found one of them in my searches.
  • Corvus
    3k
    I think the Ding an sich is an epistemological being, not an ontological one.Lionino
    How could something be an epistemic being, if it is unknowable and has no physical referent? How could something be an ontological being, if it is unknowable? You wouldn't know whether it exists or not? Is it a being at all?

    But that is the matter of whether the Ding an sich is ideal or double or monadic or material or whatever. Whether the noumenon is automatically an outside world, whether mental or physical, is another question. Since the very idea of noumenon assumes of a world besides the perception of a transcendental agent, it would make sense that without the noumenon there is nothing to perceive. I think the semantics of Vorstellung pretty much imply an outside world, so solipsism implies no Vorstellung. Coming up with a view in which there are things outside of perception and yet solipsism obtain seems to be a contradiction of the semantics of solipsism.

    So to answer your question, yes.
    Lionino
    :ok:
    If you accept the existence of the Kantian Thing-in-itself in Noumena, then that would be a proof of the existence of the outside world. No? Because Noumena exists in the physical or external world. It cannot exist in your mind according to Kant, or do you believe it does exist in your mind?

    Some folks seem to believe that the Thing-in-itself exists in the mind. The only problem is, again they don't know what it is. Isn't it contradictory to say, it exists but it is unknowable? How do you know it exists, if it is unknowable? But then some folks believe that Thing-in-itself can be knowable if you tried to perceive it, i.e. via intuition and imagination.

    But can knowledge come from imagination or intuition? It wouldn't be very accurate knowledge if it was from imagination and intuition alone without sensibility and reason. Or if you were a religious, then you could say, you experience Thing-in-itself via your faith.

    a quick introspection shows there are things in my mind whose origin I don't knowLionino
    For example, what are they? What are the things that you find in your mind whose origin you don't know?

    Having said all that, I can see the point that language is a significant factor in connecting self and external world. If there were no external world, how could one have acquired the language? How could one communicate linguistically with other minds at all? How could one make any semantic expressions about the outside world at all?
  • Lionino
    1.7k
    How could something be an epistemic beingCorvus

    By epistemic being (odd phrase admittedly), I mean a being whose defining property is of epistemological nature. The Ding an sich is that which begets experience.

    If you accept the existence of the Kantian Thing-in-itself in Noumena, then that would be a proof of the existence of the outside world. No? Because Noumena exists in the physical or external world.Corvus

    Yes.

    In the transcendental argument of the Refutation of Idealism, Kant’s target is not Humean skepticism about the applicability of a priori concepts, but rather Cartesian skepticism about the external world

    More specifically, Kant intends to refute what he calls problematic idealism, according to which the existence of objects outside us in space is “doubtful and indemonstrable” (B274)

    76EhxIQ.png

    All off the above from the SEP.
    

    I am not persuaded by Kant's argument. But it basically runs that, because I have a temporal awareness such and such, there must be objects that allow/cause such awareness. Because of this awareness, solipsism is false; and that object would be noumenal or at least have a noumenal source. But I imagine that for Kant the noumenon is always outside of the mind, and to prove the existence of a noumenon is to disprove solipsism.
    Solipsists would have to deny noumenons.

    It cannot exist in your mind according to Kant, or do you believe it does exist in your mind?Corvus

    I think the concept of noumenon is necessarily (semantically) outside of one's mind.

    For example, what are they? What are the things that you find in your mind whose origin you don't know?Corvus

    For example, perceptions, hunger, pain.
  • AmadeusD
    1.9k
    I am not persuaded by Kant's argument.Lionino

    Neither, overall, but...

    Some folks seem to believe that the Thing-in-itself exists in the mind.Corvus

    It is defined as otherwise. So thats incoherent.

    If you accept the existence of the Kantian Thing-in-itself in Noumena,Corvus

    The Noumena is not hte thing-in-itself. It is the existent as perceived by something other than human sense-perception. So, unknown to us, but theoretically knowable. The Ding-en-sich is that existent without any perception of it is my understanding.

    So perhaps it (the argument of Kant) is not being adequately outlined.
  • Corvus
    3k
    But I imagine that for Kant the noumenon is always outside of the mind, and to prove the existence of a noumenon is to disprove solipsism.
    Solipsists would have to deny noumenons.
    Lionino
    It looks to be difficult to prove the existence of noumenon if not impossible. And logically, if a noumenon was proven to be existent, then would it be still a noumenon? Or a phenomenon?

    Semantic proof may not be taken to be conclusive, because there would be a solipsist who claims that his noumenon is in his mind, and he visits there every night in his intuition. It would be difficult to disprove his claim.
  • Corvus
    3k
    Some folks seem to believe that the Thing-in-itself exists in the mind.
    — Corvus

    It is defined as otherwise. So thats incoherent.
    AmadeusD
    Ok, was just trying to see the concept from a solipsist's point.

    The Noumena is not hte thing-in-itself. It is the existent as perceived by something other than human sense-perception. So, unknown to us, but theoretically knowable. The Ding-en-sich is that existent without any perception of it is my understanding.

    So perhaps it (the argument of Kant) is not being adequately outlined.
    AmadeusD
    Since this is not about interpreting Kant accurately, it was an attempt to see it from a solipsist's perspective. But would you say that your claim is the officially accepted interpretation of Nounmena and Thing-in-itself in Kant?
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