In this context, do you basically see continuity as 3ns, discreteness as 2ns, and possibility as 1ns? — aletheist
Yep. So that does conflict with some of Peirce's apparent definition of 1ns as brute quality (with its implications of already being concrete or substantial actuality).
But that is a constant tension as to speak of vagueness, we are already reifying it as some kind of bare material cause - an Apeiron. And Peirce never actually delivered a logic of vagueness in a way that would save us having to read between the lines of his vast unpublished corpus.
So continuity or synechism itself is 3ns - but 3ns that incorporates 2ns and 1ns within itself. So 3ns is literally triadic and incorporates as "continuity" the very things that you might want to differentiate - like the discrete and the vague.
I'm sure you get this critical logical wrinkle that makes Peircean semiotics so distinctive (and confusing). This is the way he avoids the trap of Cartesian division. 3ns incorporates all that it also manages to make different.
So 1ns (in a misleadingly pure and reified sense) is vagueness (a certain unconstrained bruteness of possibility - as in unbounded fluctuations).
Then 2ns is really 2(1)ns in that action meets action to become the dyad of a reaction. Something definite and descrete has now happened in the sense that there is some event that could leave a mark. (It takes two to tango or share a history of an interaction).
Then 3ns is really 3(2(1))ns. If there is something about some random dydaic interaction that sticks, a habit can form - which in turn starts to round the corners of any local instants of dyadic interaction being produce by the spontaneity of naked possibility.
So 3ns is habit, which is constraint. And constraint transforms even 1ns to make it far more regular and well behaved. It winds up a substantial looking stuff following then disciplined laws of action and reaction which in turn speak to the establishment of global lawfulness.
Thus the triadic intertwining that is 3(2(1))ns is justified as the inevitable outcome of the very possibility of a mechanism of development. And vagueness can change character as a result. Potentiality gets replaced by (actualised) possibility - which is more the kind of notion of possibility you get from Aristotlean being and becoming, for instance. And certainly the kind of possibility imagined by standard statistics.
(Of course, Peirce twigged that too. That was why he was working on a theory of propensity.)
Given that existence is 2ns, do you generally prefer to characterize 3ns as "constraints" and 1ns as "freedoms"? — aletheist
In terms of the standard categories, I would map them as necesssity, actuality and possibility. So 3ns is necessity, 2ns is actuality, and 1ns is possibility.
Constraints and freedoms is then a dyadic framing which gets into the tricky area I just mentioned. But it does connect to Aristotelean causality in that it makes sense of habit as standing for top-down formal and final cause - the 3ns that shapes the 1ns into the 2ns that is best suited for perpetuating the 3ns.
And then freedom is fundamentally the utter freedom of 1ns - the unconstrained. But then in practical terms, it must get transmuted into the actualised freedom of constrained 2ns. It must be a possibility that is fruitfully limited - and so the kind of actual substantial variety that Aristotelean becoming, or probability spaces, standardly talk about.
So the synechic level is 3ns - pure constraint. And the tychic level is 1ns - pure freedom. Then 2ns is the zone in between where the two are in interaction - one actually shaping the other to make it the kind of thing which in turn will (re)construct that which is in the habit of making it.
So "real freedom" is 2ns because it is action now with the shape of a purpose (the actual Aristotelean understanding of efficienct cause as Peirce understood - and see Menno Hulswit's excellent books and papers on this issue -
http://www.commens.org/encyclopedia/article/hulswit-menno-teleology )
And again, as I say, this is really confusing because everything is so intertwined with Peirce (or any other true holism). But once you get used to it, it all makes sense.
:)
And I expect you already get most of this. But just in case, that is a summary of why the answer is not so straightforward.