Comments

  • What God is not
    I saw another thread discussing what time is not, and now I am curious about what you guys might think about this one.

    In my case, I think God is not me.

    So, what is it that God is not, in your opinion?
    Daniel

    God --- All good --- All knowing --- All powerful
    1*.------------Yes------------Yes-----------------Yes
    2.--------------Yes------------Yes-----------------No
    3.--------------Yes------------No------------------Yes
    4.--------------Yes------------No------------------No
    5.--------------No-------------Yes-----------------Yes
    6.--------------No-------------Yes-----------------No
    7.--------------No-------------No------------------Yes
    8.--------------No-------------No------------------No

    1* is the god we all know and debate about. In accordance with the OP's question let's play around with the three omni-attributes of god and hopefully get to God's essence and discover what god is not.

    Which of the three qualities of god is indispensable or, put otherwise, which quality is of prime importance in the definition of God?

    When it all began, there were a multitude of gods and the general belief was that they, like us, had emotions, weaknesses, moral shortcomings, etc. but what made them divine was power. The power of Thor, Zeus and Indra made them gods and no or little significance was given to their moral character. It's worth mentioning that godly power in the early history of humanity had a lot to do with the natural phenomena - weather, earthquakes, disease, pestilence, all factors that affect our wellbeing. This was a time of polytheism where many gods had to be worshipped and doing so kept in a happy state to either prevent calamities or ensure positive outcomes. God was all powerful

    Then came the realization that godly power was in a large parts nothing more than ignorance. The weapon of Thor, Indra and Zeus was simply an electrical discharge from clouds. Ergo, the power of the gods, that which made them divine, was our own ignorance, thus necessitating a revision of the definition of god. God had to be all knowing.

    As time passed humans soon realized that an all powerful, all knowing doesn't quite do the job of allaying our fears and sustain our hopes for there was no requirement that an all powerful, all knowing god care about, let alone help, us. To remedy this situation we had to add the last, but not the least, attribute to god. God had to be all loving.

    It's quite clear from the above that omnipotence was by itself inadequate and we were forced to add omniscience to the definition of god. This too failed as an acceptable definition of god - we had to make god omnibenevolent too.

    Though simplified the above account touches upon the crucial stages in the evolution of the notion of god and the most important takeaway is that a definition of god that was acceptable to us was only possible with the attribute of omnibenevolence. Neither omnipotence nor omniscience and not even these two together gave us a satisfactory definition of god. In other words it's necessary that god be good. God can never be be evil or, to answer your question, God is not evil.
  • What time is not
    A point has length 0Devans99

    So a point cannot have zero length.Devans99

    :chin:
  • Information - The Meaning Of Life In a Nutshell?
    1 and 2 - I feel these are addressed in the OP?

    3 and 4 - Seem to relate more to the meaning of death than life?

    5 - There appears to be a link between morality and information, see: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/363177

    6 - By which you mean a theory that extends QM to include gravity? QM seems to me to be about information (particles) and our ability to measure information (uncertainty principle).

    7 - Consciousness seems to be the processing of information as opposed to unconsciousness which is the complete lack of processing of information - the senses (information sources) are deactivated and the mind (information processor) is inactive.

    8 - I feel that DNA is information, so the concept of information and the origins of life are intertwined.
    Devans99

    I'm not disagreeing with you. The modern world has been aptly described as the information age. I was just wondering about the pockets of zero information in critical areas like the ones I mentioned in my previous post. This could be simply a matter of searching more carefully for the missing information but it could also be because such information is non-existent. There's a big difference between undiscovered information and non-existent information, right? The former can be found but the latter is a fool's errand if you seek it. How, in your opinion, would this affect your thesis that the meaning of life is information?
  • It's All Gap: Science offers no support for scientific materialism
    The question is why the observed quantities of the macro world are unaffected by the unpredictability of quantum particles.GeorgeTheThird

    What this post is a reply to was my "explanation".

    I think mass and what happens to mass, motion is predictable and mass isn't affected by quantum weirdness. For instance, an electron's position may be a probabilistic wave function but its mass is always whatever it is and this allows us to predict the path an electron will take in, say, a magnetic field although the electron itself is nebulous wave function.

    We need to understand what about particles is predictable. As far as I know, their motion is predictable and motion is mass-dependent and mass is independent of any quantum property of particles i.e. it remains fixed at a specific value for each particle.
  • Information - The Meaning Of Life In a Nutshell?
    So there you go - produce and consume a large amount of information for a happy, long, life - my take on the meaning of life. What do folks think?Devans99

    Amazingly, if you haven't already noticed, there is a rather inexplicable absence of information in things that matter the most:

    1. Meaning of life
    2. How to live the good life
    3. God
    4. Afterlife (death)
    5. Morality
    6. The theory of everything
    7. Consciousness
    8. Origin of life

    Why is it so that in the information age there are gigantic lacunae in our knowledge framework and that too in areas that are of greatest consequence?
  • What time is not
    The BB suggests that space maybe finite - space has been expanding at a finite rate for a finite time since the BB - so that suggests finite space (finite spacetime too). What lies beyond is pure nothing - there is no space and no time beyond the boundaries so nothing can exist.Devans99

    What lies beyond the boundary of "finite" space? Can an infinite space not expand?

    Imagine three galaxies in infinite space A, B, and C. Suppose the distance between them is 4,000 lightyears. Can't the space between these galaxies increase, not because they're moving but because space is being created between them. In other words I see a possibility of an infinite and expanding space.

    But nothing can exist forever in time, so it must have a start. See for example the argument I gave in this OP:Devans99


    What about time itself? Did it have a beginning? If space can be infinite and time is "just another" dimension, and if space can be infinite can't time be too?
  • What time is not
    A point has length 0, say the line segment is length 1, then the number of points on it is 1/0=UNDEFINED. It is not infinite or unbounded, it is just UNDEFINED. It's not surprising considering a point is defined to have length 0 - so cannot exist - something with all dimensions set to zero clearly does not exist - so the question can be rephrased as 'how many non-existent things can you fit on a line segment' - an answer of UNDEFINED is exactly what you'd expect.Devans99

    This has bothered me since you first brought it up not a while ago. I'm not a mathematician but 1 here is a length and when you divide a length you don't get a point. What you get is another length.

    Also, a point isn't defined in terms of how big/small it is i.e. it isn't dependent for its existence on its own dimensions which as you rightly pointed out is zero. A point is actually defined in terms of its distance from the origin (0,0) or some other reference point.

    Dividing a length by a point doesn't make sense in the same way as dividing Tom, Dick, Harry and John by Dick or Harry doesn't make sense.
  • It's All Gap: Science offers no support for scientific materialism
    Again: What causes a collection of completely unpredictable particles to exhibit highly predictable behavior?GeorgeTheThird

    Well, perhaps it's an issue of viewpoint. Predictability, where it's exhibited (the macro world), is "always" about mass, velocity, acceleration, volume, etc which aren't affected by unpredictable quantum properties of particles.

    It's something like how the color of a ball, take it to be quantum unpredictability, doesn't affect its mass, the very thing that helps us make predictions about the ball. The microscopic, unpredictable, quantum nature of objects are irrelevant to their mass, the key element of their predictability.
  • On the very idea of irreducible complexity
    My question is - can the idea of irreducible complexity be interesting philosophically?

    And also, philosophically speaking, can there be anything that is truly irreducibly complex?
    Wheatley

    I find the notion of irreducible complexity very similar to that of missing links - transitional fossils. Assuming evolution progressed from simplicity to complexity, there had to be intermediate stages that connected one life-form to another. I believe the bird-dinosaur intermediate stage was the Archaeopteryx.

    Anyway, irreducible complexity makes the claim that there are no intermediary stages that lead up to, in this case, the bacterial flagellum which accordingly brings to question the soundness of the theory of evolution.

    However, we must bear in mind the processes at work at the scale of a bacterial flagellum. In effect the flagellum is a proteinaceous structure probably composed of a handful of molecules. As far as I know, molecular interactions follow strict rules, especially at the levels at which the component molecules of a flagellum interact. A close approximation in my "opinion" is that it's all or none in nature i.e. either the component molecules of the flagellum fit to become a functional locomotory organ or not. That the molecules involved will alter gradually, through intermediate stages is out of the question. Ergo, irreducible complexity comes as part and parcel of evolution at the molecular level.

    What is interesting though is transitional/intermediate stages in life-forms, far removed from the molecular level of evolution, the macroscopic phenotype. Here we see intermediate/transitional stages. I mentioned archaeopteryx. There's the lobed-fin fishes if I recall correctly. At this level, the missing links are clearly represented in the fossil records. These stages however are a result of irreducible complexity at the molecular level of evolution and this comes out of the laws of chemistry and biochemistry.

    Personally speaking I like the original implications of irreducible complexity - intelligent design - because it would be amazing to discover what are veritable easter eggs left by (a) super-intelligent designer(s) in the code of the life that are clues to our origins, purpose, and destiny.

    A good example of how irreducible complexity is different to missing links is our immune system. Antibodies against germs and their toxins aren't produced in gradual steps. To the contrary, the body deploys a vast array of possible antibodies, each synthesized as it is from scratch and whichever variant matches the germ/toxin is then amplified. Irreducible complexity but probably very similar to evolution at the molecular level.
  • What time is not
    Do you really think Bart is talking about supertasks? I still think he is talking about simple sequences.Banno

    His claim is that an actual infinity is impossible. One way to make sense of that would be the problem of completing supertasks. That's all.
  • What time is not
    you can't have actual infinities.Bartricks


    Because of...

    Infinite tasks or the correct terminology being supertasks.

    As you already know, super tasks, to be effective paradoxes and thus become problematic, are usually introduced with or within (a) limit(s) and are about infinitesimals which eventually spiral into infinity. For instance Zeno's paradoxes are about how a line is divisible into infinitesimals which lead to an infinity of points that must be traversed or considered.

    The only way time as infinite is paradoxical is because of the supertask involved in reaching the present from an infinite past.
  • What time is not
    (This will be funny...)Banno
    :smile:
  • What time is not
    That's obviously question begging. You can't have actual infinities, so time is 'not' a dimension.

    The same applies to space. You don't solve one problem by showing how it arises for other things.

    Because we can't have actual infinities of anything, we need to rethink time and space - we 'must' be thinking about them in the wrong way. I am focussing here on time. Bringing space in - given that it raises many of the same problems - is unhelpful.

    Time - time - is not a stuff, not a dimension. Why? Because thinking of it that way means it would instantiate actual infinities. That's sufficient to establish that it is not a stuff, not a dimension. But additionally, there would be no intrinsic difference between future, past and present (yet clearly these are radically different).
    Bartricks

    Ok. Let's study this problem together.

    Your claim: Time can't be infinite because of infinite regress.

    Your reason: If time is infinite than we have an infinite past which raises the question "how did we reach this point in time?" Infinite regress.

    Is this your argument?
  • The types of lies
    So making art viz. truths via fictions is always "immoral" because it violates the CI prohibition on "telling untruths"? :chin: Does K ever really square this circle ... How can we square it using K's "inconsequentialist" deontology?180 Proof

    Looks like we've to switch places here. Art-fictions are untruths that we know are false and although there may be a few out there who want to pass off fiction as truths, we usually never mistake fiction for the truth and artists generally don't claim their creations are truths.

    Lies, on the other hand, are clearly deceptive in nature in that a falsehood as deliberately presented as a truth. It's these kind of untruths that are lies, True Lies and Kant aims his guns at these kinds of immorality.
  • What time is not
    Er, no. It is the impossibility of an actual infinity that makes an infinite task impossible!!

    Numbers aren't things. There aren't an actual infinity of numbers, rather they constitute a potential infinity.
    Bartricks

    Yes, but there has to be a practical implication, an infinite task, that creates the difficulty.

    In fact all paradoxes of infinity boils down to showing the practical impossibility of infinity.

    I see no such problems in infinite space. What other alternative do we have if space is not infinite? Finite space, right? And the next question would be what lies beyond space? In fact infinite regress seems to be in favor of space being infinite rather than finite.

    Given that time is just a spatial dimension we have limited access to, there should be no problem in imagining time too to be infinite.
  • What time is not
    No, why is an infinite regress a problem? It is a problem because you can't have an actual infinity of anything.

    For example, consider the first cause argument. Anything that has come into being needs a cause of its being. Positing another being that has come into being as the cause of those beings that have come into being starts one on an infinite regress. Why is that a problem? Why can't it be 'turtles all the way down'? Because you can't have an actual infinity of anything, be that causes, objects, actions.
    Bartricks

    How many natural numbers are there? Infinite yes? Is that a problem? No. Why? Because it doesn't lead to an infinite task.

    How many points are there on a line? Infinite yes? Is that a problem? Yes. Why? As Zeno showed Achilles can't catch up with tortoise. An infinite task.
  • "Chunks of sense"
    I just don't like the language used here. By this language a triangle is meaningless amd cannot be understoodkhaled

    Space, line, point and triangle are all primal.khaled

    You can usually tell if a word represents one of these "primal concepts" by how hard it is to definekhaled

    I simply applied your principle. When we find things difficult to define, we may be dealing with entities that are undefinable but nameable.
  • What time is not
    Hmm, I still don't see a difference: if time is a stuff, then there is an infinite amount of past earlier than now, and an infinite amount of future later than now. If space is a stuff, then there is an infinite amount of it behind me and an infinite amount of it in front of me.

    The problem with infinite regresses is the 'infinite' bit. So, that we recognise an infinite regress to be a problem just underlines that actual infinities are problems - for an infinite regress just is an actual infinity.
    Bartricks

    No. An infinite regress, as I understand it, refers to the specific problem of an infinite task being impossible to complete. Infinity is the condition of being boundless.

    You need to show me how space/time being infinite leads to an infinite task that can't be completed and that would be a problem.
  • Philosophy and the Twin Paradox
    The famous twin paradox of special relativity involves a scenario where one twin (he) rockets away from the home twin (her), coasts to a far-away turnpoint, reverses course, coasts back, and comes to a halt when they are reunited. At the reunion, both twins agree (by inspection) that she is older than he is.

    There is no dispute about the outcome at the reunion. But physicists DO differ about what HE concludes about HER current age DURING his trip. One school of thought is that he says that she is ageing more slowly than he is, on both the outbound leg and on the inbound leg, but that he concludes that she instantaneously ages by a large amount during the instantaneous turnaround. But that conclusion can be shown to imply that he will have to conclude that it is possible for her to instantaneously get YOUNGER when he changes speed in certain other ways. THAT result is abhorrent to many (maybe most) physicists. The most extreme reaction is to conclude that simultaneity at a distance is simply a meaningless concept. Other physicists react by embracing alternative simultaneity methods, that don't result in instantaneous ageing (either positive or negative).

    So what does the above have to do with philosophy? For many physicists, there is no place for philosophy in special relativity. Philosophical arguments are usually banned on physics forums. But philosophy has always played a role in my thinking on the subject, even though I'm a physicist, not a philosopher (and I have only a VERY limited knowledge of philosophy). Philosophy has entered into my thinking about the twin paradox in this way: when some physicists contend that simultaneity at a distance is meaningless, I have a philosophical problem with that. IF I were that traveler, I don't think I would be able to believe that she no longer EXISTS whenever I am not co-located with her. (And I doubt that many other physicists believe that either). BUT many physicists DO believe that she doesn't have a well-defined current AGE when he is separated from her (at least if he has accelerated recently). THAT'S the conclusion that I can't accept philosophically: it seems to me that if she currently EXISTS right now, she must be DOING something right now, and if she is DOING something right now, she must be some specific AGE right now. So I conclude that her current age, according to him, can't be a meaningless concept. That puts me at odds with many other physicists.

    What say the philosophers on this forum?
    Mike Fontenot

    Are we discussing simultaneity here?

    Consider the following

    Imagine a person B located equidistant from two light bulbs 1 and 2 and a third person located to the left of light bulb 1 like so A........................1.....B.....2

    B has the switch that lights both bulbs which are connected with wires of equal length

    Imagine now that B throws the switch. Electricity, at the speed of light travels through two wires, both of equal length, to the bulbs and turns them on. This must happen at the same time, i.e. the lights turn on in 1 and 2 simultaneously for observer B.

    However, person A being closer to light bulb 1 than 2 will see 1 turn on first, followed by 2. In other words person A will see two simultaneous events (light bulbs 1 and 2 turning on) as non-simultaneous.

    So simultaneity depends on the position of an observer relative to what is being observed even if all observers are in the same frame of reference. Note that all objects in the above thought experiment (persons A, B and the light bulbs 1, 2) are at rest relative to each other.

    If we introduce motion, things could get complicated.

    An important fact here is the constancy and the unsurpassable limit of the speed of light. Being the fastest mode for information transmission, it implies that circumstances will arise when simultaneous events will be perceived as not.
  • What time is not
    It 'does' lead to an infinite regress.

    It's true that there's at least one additional reason to think that time is not a substance (a reason to do with the intrinsic difference between past, present and future), but when it comes to the problem of actual infinities, the problem is the same. Space and time go the same way.

    Time, if it is a substance, would have to extend infinitely because otherwise it would not be possible for an event to become ever more past for infinity. And that's manifestly absurd - no substance can extend infinitely.

    But exactly the same is true of space as well. Space has to extend infinitely - how could it have a boundary? Whatever is outside the boundary would also be space.

    And any region of space is going to be infinitely divisible.

    One can just insist that this is not so - that is, one could, as Devans99 seems to be doing - reason that as no actual infinities can exist (correct), space must be reducible to discrete portions or atoms of space. But the problem with that is that it doesn't recognise that the problem is with space per se - any portion of space is going, by its very nature, to be divisible. I mean, try and imagine a portion of space that isn't divisible - it's impossible.

    What we must conclude, on pain of simply refusing to face up to what reason is telling us, is that we are thinking about space and time incorrectly.
    Bartricks

    My bad. Sorry. I wasn't clear enough. Infinite space does lead to an infinite regress but that isn't a problem. People don't usually introduce infinite regress as an even a minor issue with infinite space.

    However, infinite regress is a problem with infinite time because to get to this point in time we would have had to pass through an infinite past which seems inconceivable, infinity defined as it is.
  • Critical thinking
    Cognitive load theory assumes that, for example, critical thinking is biologically primary and so unteachable. We all are able to think critically if we have sufficient knowledge stored in long-term memory in the area of interest.

    A car mechanic can think critically about repairing a car. I, and I dare say most of you reading cannot. Teaching us critical thinking strategies instead of car mechanics is likely to be useless.
    — John Sweller

    "We need to teach kids how to think critically!" - a common call.

    One result is perhaps the number of threads here that tell us how physics or mathematics has it wrong, while demonstrating a lack of knowledge of either physics or mathematics.

    Critical thinking without context is dangerous.
    Banno

    "We need to teach kids how to think critically!" - a common call.

    One result is perhaps the number of threads here that tell us how physics or mathematics has it wrong, while demonstrating a lack of knowledge of either physics or mathematics.

    Critical thinking without context is dangerous.
    Banno

    Everything is dangerous when you live under the yoke of tyranny whether that be a single powerful dictator or the so-called "democratic" majority.
  • It's All Gap: Science offers no support for scientific materialism
    Yes, causality is just the simplest form of linear connection. Same thing with Complex Adaptive Systems and chaotic attractors. That's why it's called 'non-linear dynamics'. The relationships exist, they just aren't straightforward.Pantagruel

    :ok:
  • Critical thinking
    I've no idea of what you are saying.Banno

    :rofl:
  • The types of lies
    Immanuel Kant has categorically declared that all lies are unethical.

    He said that in an era of absolutism. It's either black or white, no shades of gray; it's either good, or evil, no shades of nuances. Either male of female, no shades of gender realization. Either mature or immature, no shades of the Autism spectrum.

    That's why I thought of lies, lying, today. Have been thinking about it, for a while, actually. My girlfriend often tell me lies. But they are not upsetting. Despite my having come from a home where my mother had tried to instill only three life lessons into us, her children: don't lie, don't steal, don't engage in fights.

    Well.

    There are different types of lies, depending on the types of act it achieves for the teller and for the listener.

    1. Malicious lie, to hurt the listener; to vindicate the teller.
    2. Malicious lie, to hurt the listener, but leave the teller neutral.
    3. Benign lie, to leave the listener unharmed, but to vindicate the teller.
    4. Benign lie, to leave the listener unharmed, but to help the teller cut a long story shorter.
    5. Benign lie, to make the listener be worried, and to make the teller happy, when the teller tells the listener that this was a lie, and, releived, the listener laughs with the teller.

    Please note that 6. and 7. are missing: listener maltreated or left unharmed, and the teller maltreated. Nobody lies to harm their own causes.
    Please note that 8. is missing: Benign lie, to leave the listener unharmed, but leave the teller neutral. Lying for lying's sake with no detectable difference in reaction between truth and lie is done only by pathological liars.

    Sometimes there is an appearance of teller getting harmed; for instance, a kid kills a teacher, and the father confesses wrongly to the crime, and gets locked up or the chair. This seems like the father lied to harm himself; but for the father, it is less hurt to be locked up in penitentiary or get hanged than to see his son be locked up there or executed.

    My girlfriend notoriously uses 3. if she is late for a date, and 4.

    For those interested, they can create a table of sorts, with rows and columns, and add a third variable: a third party gets unharmed or malicious wronged by a lie, for all cases possible of the teller and the listener being unharmed or maliciously wronged.

    If you were Immanuel Kant, and you were presented the above structure, what would you say about the ethical value of lying? Is lying moral, immoral, and which is when, under what arrangement of malice / vindication for the teller and the listener?
    god must be atheist

    I think Kant would've said all lying is impermissible. @180 Proof seems to have tinkered with the defintion of a "lie" to exclude untruths that have no negative consequences but that's probably not how Kant would've seen it. Kant, from what I know, uses the categorical imperative to determine what's good or bad. The effects of an action are, well, inconsequential. There's "something" immoral about telling untruths whether they have bad or good consequences. What that "something" is is probably unexplained but Kant had his categorical imperative rule which taps into the collective intuition on morality and never outputs an action that violates this intuition as permissible.

    I've heard people say things like "if everybody did x then society would collapse, etc." which makes Kantian ethics ultimately an offshoot of consequentialism which it shouldn't be. My personal view on the matter is Kant specifically wants to avoid basing his ethics on consequences of actions because of situations like the one in your OP i.e. lying to make someone happy which even to the consequentialist translates as: doing something bad to achieve something good. No matter how much of a consequentialist fanatic you are you will never be able to eliminate the feeling that lying, just telling an untruth, no matter what the consequences, is immoral. You will ultimately defend such acts by saying something like "I had to lie. I didn't have a choice. I didn't want to make him/her/them unhappy" which throws into relief the fact that consequentialists subscribe to the Kantian moral doctrine in principle and permit of intrinsically immoral actions only when they have no other choice.
  • A clock from nothing
    Yes. If you disregard physics, anything is possible.StreetlightX
    :rofl:



    1. If you want to make a clock then there must be something that changes
    2. If there's something that changes then there's something
    Ergo
    3. If there's something then it can't be nothing
  • What time is not
    Some people do object - spacetime looks like a creation (see the BB). It's impossible to create anything infinite in size, so therefore spacetime should be finite.Devans99

    Thanks for the link. When I said that people don't find it difficult to conceive space as infinite I mean that it doesn't lead to an infinite regress like if time was infinite.
  • It's All Gap: Science offers no support for scientific materialism
    The absence of causality does not refute materialism. It refutes the proposition that knowledge of natural causes refutes theism.GeorgeTheThird

    Ok. Firstly, if you're going to use the lack/absence of causality in the quantum world to attack scientific "knowledge" which is, as you presume, about causal relationships and then use this gap to introduce god, you might want to investigate the reasons behind why there's no definitive understanding of causality at the quantum level. I know next to nothing about quantum physics but I can tell you that there are mathematical equations in that field and equations are, in my opinion, causal relations.

    Secondly, and you did mention this, there's a difference between the behavior of individual particles and aggregates of particles. We may be uncertain about causality in the former but causality is well-established in the latter. For instance each particle inside a billiard ball behaves in accordance to quantum physics but the billiard all participates in a causal chain when somebody plays it.

    The god of the gaps has mainly been about the macro, human-scale world where causality applies and in this domain, science has clearly identified and described causal relationships. The fact that you're trying to use quantum physics, a smaller region compared to what was initially all phenomena, is an indication that, indeed, the god of the gaps is shrinking in relevance.
  • What justifies a positive ethics (as opposed to a negative one)?
    The path to hell is paved with 'positive ethics'.ovdtogt

    :lol:
  • It's All Gap: Science offers no support for scientific materialism
    What follows is a logical argument that science offers no support for scientific materialism.

    Scientific materialism rests on this proposition:
    It is possible, in principle, to demonstrate by experiment a natural cause for every event, thus scientifically eliminating God as the cause of any event.

    At the macro scale, and at smaller scales down to the statistical aggregate of quantum particle events, causes are readily identifiable for a broad range of events. It appears that the gaps in human knowledge are closing.

    Every high level event in the universe is the sum of many individual particle events. (Gravity can be ignored in this discussion because there will be no gravity events without massive particles, and massive particles are the result of quantum events.)

    Science knows of no cause for the outcome of any individual particle event. So, any given high-level event that has a known cause is the sum of many individual particle events, not one of which has a known cause. (Or has no cause at all, if the prevailing theory of quantum mechanics is correct.)

    As a matter of logic, the proposition of scientific materialism fails completely, because no cause can be identified for any event in the universe.

    Moreover, the operation of the universe is not comprehended. (And is incomprehensible if the prevailing theory of quantum mechanics is correct.) No one has the least idea how the order and beauty observed in the universe arises out of the chaos of individual particle interactions.

    The goal of scientific materialism is to increase our knowledge of the natural world, reducing the gaps, eventually eliminating God as the cause of any event.

    As things stand, it's all gap.
    GeorgeTheThird

    Perhaps causality is restricted to the macro, human-and-larger scale world but I did hear the physicist Lawrence Kraus make a statement to the effect that the Big Bang was a quantum state and that quantum physics is applicable. If so then all that we see as causality in this world is an effect of the quantum goings-on during the Big Bang.

    I have no idea how an absence of causality leads to a refutation of materialism. There's no inconsistency in believing materialism and also that causality isn't real.
  • Who should have the final decision on the future of a severely injured person, husband or parents?
    In some ways I may be making this as difficult as possible so that we have to dig deeper. Yes there is only one factor to consider, the quality of her existence. Which is unknown and cannot be taken back once committed to.

    I understand that there are people who overcome the pain and live a life as best they can. I don’t know how many find it intolerable or end up taking their life.

    Just to dig a little deeper. A mother’s love for her child is unconditional, not always but generally. A husband’s love for his wife is not nearly so unconditional. It’s conditional on a number of things, one being that she love him back. Would he still love her the same way if she said she did not love him and loved another and was going to live with that man?

    Can the mother of the victim be sure the husband will commit himself to his wife whatever the circumstances or how long they went on for? Would he be prepared to put himself second the way mothers do with their children? Dos he understand the sort of commitment made by mothers, which is what would be required from him? I don’t know what it’s like to give birth to a child and watch it grow. That’s something that perhaps is impossible to be explained to me. So the depth of feeling for a mother about the suffering of her child may be something that is beyond the law.
    Brett

    Oh! Thanks for the clarification. This isn't about euthanasia as I supposed. All I know is love is invariably associated with what maybe called high expecations and, paradoxically, with poor performance. When you love someone, you have high expectations from yourself but, at some point, you realize that the world exerts a certain amount of stress on everyone and it doesn't take long for the last straw to gently float down and break the camel's back i.e. people usually have a poor performance record in love. True love would and does recognize the limits of how much a person can give/take in the real world and true love exists within those limits.
  • "Chunks of sense"
    Reading much of the newer metaphysics and epistemology posts (especially Bartricks') I find they go around in circles forever.

    What is A
    A is when you put B and C together
    What are B and C
    B is a D E and C is a slightly F G
    Etc

    Seems to be how arguments progress there. It got me wondering how we can ever even have well defined concepts in a language when every word is supposedly replaceable by a combination of other words. At what point do we cease defining and start understanding.

    "Philosophy in the flesh" (great book imo) and my recent reading of Eastern philosophy gave me a new perspective which is "chunks of sense". I believe there are certain concepts we're born knowing such as: time, space, shape, etc. Even if you didn't know the word for those you'd understand them. You can usually tell if a word represents one of these "primal concepts" by how hard it is to define. Example: Try to define shape. That's the hardest one I've found so far and I've utterly failed to define shape without just using a synonym. Google defines it as the "outline" of an object but is literally just a synonym

    While there are other words such as "Horse" which you cannot hope to conceptualize before seeing one. You aren't born knowing what a horse is and a horse can be defined in other ways such as "The furless four legged animal with hooves that humans usually ride on" (not a perfect definition but one can reach a perfect definition at least). Notice how nothing resembling a synonym of horse appears in the description. Additionally, all the things that do are "non primal words" such as hooves, fur, humans, ride, etc.

    I noticed that most of the time "primal" and "non primal" words act as groups (in set theory) where non primal words can only be defined by other non primal words and primal words can only be defined by primal words.

    Example: triangle: the space between 3 lines intersecting at 3 points

    Space, line, point and triangle are all primal. You can know what all of them are without any sensory evidence (you know them when you're born)

    So my hypothesis is: non primal words can only be defined by other non primal words and primal words can only be defined by primal words.
    What do you think?
    khaled

    It seems to me that what you call "primal words" aren't hard to define as you put it but rather they're the simplest of words, their meanings graspable without recourse to other words, thus are left undefined. Perhaps such words are ostensively defined through an act of pointing out the set of objects you want to name.

    If that's true then you're correct in that the meaning "primal words" can only be conveyed through synonyms and not with an explicit definiens as is usually done for words which you call "non primal words". With each synonym we hope that a person will grasp the essence of what the "primal word" means because with more options available the likelihood that a person has come across one of them increases, with an overall improvement in the chances that s/he will understand the "primal word".

    "Non primal words", as you pointed out, depend on other words of the same type and all that needs to be added is that the lineage of all words, "primal and non primal", can be traced to undefined, simplest, "primal words".

    I also feel that insofar as "primal words" are concerned it isn't actually about defining them; rather, being the simplest possible unit of meaning, it's a matter of naming. For instance we don't define a point. We name it.

    One could say, as you have, that we're born with "primal words/concepts" but as I mentioned above "primal concepts" only involve assigning names to objects. I might have used the word "understand" somewhere above in re "primal words" as if there's a meaning there that needs to be understood but as it turns out "primal words" are meaningless and are only names we give to objects of interest. "Primal words" are like the straight lines and curves in letters, themselves devoid of meaning but in a certain pattern form letters of the alphabet and have meaning. Therefore, since "primal words" have no meaning, there is nothing that we're born with.
  • Who should have the final decision on the future of a severely injured person, husband or parents?
    Imagine this; a woman of 40 years is severely injured in an accident, so severely that if she recovers then her life will be hell.

    Her parents want her taken off life support to be allowed to die. Her husband wants her kept on life support until she recovers.

    Setting aside legal positions, who should have the final decision?
    Brett

    A situation that's a reminder for us all that we need to make our choice under such circumstances known beforehand to save your loved ones, if you have any, the agony of making life-and-death decisions for you. It's unfair on anyone's part to put others in moral dilemmas like this when a one page note expressing your decision can be written in five minutes and given legal force much much earlier than it'll ever be required.

    That said I think the scenario doesn't do justice to the actual issue at stake in euthanasia which is a dilemma between living with severe pain or murder (disconnect life support). Perhaps the husband represents the intuition that removing life support amounts to murder and the parents stand for our belief that death is better than a life of pain.

    Your scenario pits the husband against the parents as if one of them has greater say in the decision. That this is false is betrayed by your inclusion of the condition "her life will be hell" and "until she recovers". These conditions of her future state are the true determinants of what the choice should be and the relations of being wife or child have absolutely no bearing on the decision except in the capacity of an executor. The decision depends on one and only one factor - the quality of her existence in terms of how much suffering will be a part of it.
  • Why people distrust intelligence
    When someone clearly acts through conscious consideration, we say to him: "Stop acting, be yourself!", as if conscious consideration couldn't be a part of what someone truly is. Most politicians try to give the impression that they and their ideas are simple and honest. And Lynyrd Skynyrd is singing about how a simple man is someone you can trust and understand.

    There is an evolutionary reason we distrust intelligence. Of course intelligence could be used for inventions and adaptation to the environment even in prehistory. But on social level, the main new thing intelligence brought to the table was that dirty, dirty scheming and lying. You had to be always on your toes when someone was particularly intelligent... any suggestion he made could be for good reasons. But it could also be just to get rid of competition or to get to fuck every woman in the tribe behind your backs.

    And this was a good reason to distrust the intelligentsia for millenia. But then came many new things that changed the game. One of them was science - a practical system which had a built in system against lying and corruption and which became the most trustworthy system on the whole planet because of that. And then most of the honest intelligent people became quite the fans of science and they started to loudly declare how scientific they were. They didn't realize that the primitive intuitions of people simply saw arrogant people boasting about their intelligence. And so the intuitions shouted: "Red alert! People saying complicated things hard to understand! Do not trust them! Trust those people who say intuitively simple things!" without realizing that the intuitively simple things they trusted were specifically chosen for them by dishonest intelligent manipulators.

    And so we get the modern world: where the scientists and engineers give everyone almost all the resources they have, but where the leaders rarely represent science or engineering.

    ps. Everything in the text is oversimplified and too extreme. It's pretty much a rant, but it makes a coherent point. Any thoughts?
    Qmeri

    I think there's a conflation between intelligence and immorality here. Intelligence doesn't lead to immorality. In fact, it seems philosophy has its origins in the need to know what a good life meant. Assuming the same spirit pervades all intelligent people I think goodness is well-represented among the so-called intelligentsia.

    There's always a bad apple but that's always the case no matter how we cut we the cake. One thing though is that evil + intelligence is a dangerous combination but one could easily the same thing about evil + power or evil + influence, etc. Look at the flip side though: good + foolishness never did/does anything good for anybody except maybe help the foolish to shoot themselves in the foot but when good combines with intelligence we have the beginnings of great moral achievements.

    It seems, therefore, that intelligence is like a tool at our disposal, and like any tool can be used for good or bad and which option is chosen depends on morality. Just as hammer is not the carpenter, intelligence is not the character of a person.

    The unfortunate fact is morality isn't as well-understood a subject and God, if he exists, has chosen to remain hidden to even the most devout amongst us. This does tip the balance towards immorality but that's true for all categories of people - dumb, intelligent, chinese, chefs, cat owners, Christian's, etc. Intelligent people are just one of these categories, not in any way overrepresented.
  • What time is not
    For instance, can something exist that is infinitely extended? Well, no. For instance, when a position is shown to generate an infinite regress, we consider that a damning indictment of the view. Why? Because we - most of us - recognise that actual infinities cannot exist.Bartricks

    Thanks for reminding me. All I wanted to do was prove that time is non-spatial, despite its measurement being so and that time isn't some kind a special space. Although it's represented as a 4th dimension in modern physics it is unique enough to deserve separate treatment.

    If time can be represented as a dimension then what is time for a 2-dimensional being? Would it view our 3rd spatial dimension as time just like time is a 4th dimension for us? This is a puzzle for me and is beyond my skills to answer but I'll try and explain the issue: Either time is always the fourth dimension for all possible worlds or time is an "extra" dimension added onto whatever spatial dimension a world exists in. The former scenario would mean that all worlds, regardless of how many dimensions they have would consider time always as a fourth dimension. Let's call this situation as T4 time. In the latter view a N-dimensional world would make time as N+1th dimension. Let's call this N+1 time.

    If time is N+1 time then time is actually space in a higher dimension accessible to N-dimensional worlds in a limited way in that we can only go from the past, through the present, into the future.

    A T4 time situation seems unlikely because there is a sense that time flows in a universal way for all worlds and each world would need to have time added onto their space as an extra dimension.

    So, time is probably N+1 time but that leads to time being just space in a higher dimension. Notice though that our freedom, what we can do, is severely limited in the time dimension - we can only move forward. For instance take a ball and roll it on a table. We can roll it back so it retraces its course perfectly to it's starting position but even though the ball moved backwards in space, it can never move backwards in time for time has passed into the future between rolling the ball forwards and rolling it backwards. Another way to see this would be the impossibility of going back to 1945 to witness the end of world war 2.

    Some say this irreversibility is due to entropy - that it always increases causes the arrow of time. This is where things get interesting because entropy is a physical-spatial concept. If we could reverse every spatial entity in the right way then the world could travel back in time. Imagine that every event is reversed causally (for simplicity think billiard balls) we could then retrace our step back to, say, 1945 and see the end of WW2. Doesn't this suggest that time is reversible in theory but not in practice due to entropy? This explains the unique nature of the dimension of time insofar as we're concerned.

    That means, if entropy didn't behave the way it does, we could access the temporal dimension as easily as we do the 3 dimensions of space. Time then is just space in a higher dimension.

    As for infinite regress, I think if we consider time as a higher dimension of space the problem disappears. Nobody will object to space being infinite and if time is simply a higher dimensional space then there should be no problem in it being infinite.
  • What time is not
    It is not, I think, a kind of stuff or dimension. This is for numerous reasons. Conceived of as a stuff (or dimension, if dimensions are not stuff), it would be infinitely divisible, yet nothing that is infinitely divisible can exist in reality (yet time does exist, thus it is not a stuff/dimension).

    Note too that the past is potentially infinite, as is the future. But if time is a kind of stuff or dimension, then it - the stuff itself - would have to extend infinitely otherwise how could any event in it recede potentially infinitely into the past? Yet nothing that is actually infinite can exist in reality (yet time does exist, thus time is not a stuff).

    Finally - and I am not suggesting these exhaust the problems - there would be no fundamental difference between past, present and future. Indeed, there would not really be such properties, only early than and later than and simultaneous-with. But future past and present are essential to time - they 'are' the fundamental temporal properties - and they are radically distinct from each other (thus, time is not a stuff).

    Time, then, is not a stuff, not a dimension.
    Bartricks

    I've given it some thought and...

    Motion is a very fundamental phenomenon. In fact every object in the universe is in motion relative to at least one other object. Imagine now a 100 meters race between 3 runners of differing prowess taking place in front of you. Since they're unequal in ability it's plausible and expected too that they will reach the finish line in a specific sequence 1st, 2nd and 3rd. This sequence is true and verifiable through actual first-hand experience.

    The question that naturally arises is "how do we make sense of this sequence?" It isn't a spatial sequence because the race is 100 meters for all runners. Ergo, the sequence must exist in something that is not space and this domain where events can be sequenced is called time. This allows us to get a handle on what the sequence in the race means - the 1st runner took less time than the 2nd runner who took less time than the 3rd runner.

    This also gives us the classical divisions of time into past, present and future. If we were to focus on the runner who comes 2nd we could call it the present; then the runner who came 1st is in the past and the runner who'll be 3rd is in the future.

    Time is a domain in which events can be sequenced into past, present and future. It's very much like space where location can be sequenced into far, midway and near.

    We measure time in some unit; the usual ones being seconds, minutes, hours, days, weeks, months and years etc. The most obvious unit of time and hence the first unit to measure time with is the day (24 hrs). However, the day is simply the distance the earth travels in one rotation around its axis. In other words we may reduce time (1 day) to space (the distance covered in one rotation of the earth). This model continues onto all units of time with a second being a specific distance between two marks on an analog watch.

    Is it that time is just space (distance) then, with every unit of time being nothing but different distances? Recall the 100 meter race scenario above and we can see that the past, present and future (1st 2nd and 3rd) sequence isn't spatial - 100 meters for all 3 runners. The sequence is real and must be a sequence in some domain of reality and it's this domain, independent of space, we call time.
  • Sextus Empiricus - The Weakness of the Strongest Argument
    :ok:

    My argument boils down to self-justification - the circularity that pops up whenever we attempt to justify logic.

    I've been using "logic" in a loose sense but it appears to me that we need to make a distinction between rationality and logic. The circularity we talked about concerns the former which makes the demand for justification and not the latter which simply captures the elements of inference.

    Rationality requires justification for claims. This is necessary if we are to find out what truth value a certain claim has and the method by which you determine that is logic.

    Since rationality asks for justification, the same requirement should apply to it, right? But that would mean it already assumes that rationality is justified. However, given that the only method for discovering the truth of a claim is to justify it and this is exactly what rationality is, it means we have no choice other than to accept rationality as justified.

    What would be the other option to rationality is not justified? Is there another method by which we may find truth values of claims? No, I can't think of any method, other than justification (rationality), that can help decide what the truth value of a claim is.

    As for logic, in the stricter sense of the term, it's about defining the rules of how we should think. It itself needs no justification and all it has to do is ensure that its rules agree with our thought patterns.
  • What is the difference between actual infinity and potential infinity?
    Context means everything:

    (1) a=a+1 (no finite solution. In complex analysis a would be the point at infinity - corresponding to an actual point at the north pole of the Riemann sphere)

    (2) a=0
    for k=1 to 100
    a=a+1
    next
    (now what is a?)

    I'm still mulling over "bad habits" in math. Sloppiness; jumping over points in a proof assuming they are true; assuming a hypothesis and then proving it; muddling a proof so badly other mathematicians can't verify it; etc. Using infinity or infinitesimals are the least of our concerns. :nerd:
    John Gill

    I have no idea what you're talking about. Don't worry, it's me, not you. :grin:
  • Sextus Empiricus - The Weakness of the Strongest Argument
    As for my non-orthodox view, on one level, all sound deductive logic will require true premises. The truth of premises will in all cases require some reality that is conformed to. The conformity to the referenced reality will be less than infallible. Hence, all sound deductive reasoning is less than infallible in its conclusions.javra

    Agreed.

    logic cannot be used to substantiate the credibility of logic, for so attempting presumes the very conclusion one is attempting to arrive at from the very get go - this irrespective of the specific instantiation of logic usedjavra

    Yeah. I remember starting a thread titled "The fallacy of logic" on this issue, pointing out that logic itself is unproven as to its ability to always discover truths. Someone then remarked that any attempt at such a proof already assumes logic has that ability.

    However, let's study the nature of this circularity. As far as I can see an argument to justify logic as the correct method for discovering truth is circular only because we need argument and that is already assuming that logic is the correct method of arriving at the truth which in this case is whether logic is justified or not.

    However, is this obvious circularity really damaging to our attempt to justify logic? If I remember correctly, a bad circular argument simply restates the premise as a conclusion and is that how a justificatory argument for logic is/has to be?

    The argument that any attempt to justify logic is circular would look like this:

    Argument A:
    1. Logic requires that all claims have to be justified
    2. Logic is the best way to arrive at the truth i.e. logic is justified
    3. Claim 2 requires justification because of claim 1
    4. Claim 3 (we need an argument) assumes 2 (logic is already justified) (circularity)

    Despite the obvious circularity I think there's a way to justify logic as follows

    Argument B:
    1. Any claim can be true or false
    2. To determine the truth value of a claim we need a method; this method is justification/argumentation
    Ergo
    3. It's a requirement that all claims have to be justified (if we want to know the truth value of the claim)
    4. Logic is the requirement that all claims have to be justified
    5. The requirement that all claims have to be justified is the only way we can determine truth/falsehood
    Ergo
    6. Logic is the only way we can determine truth/falsehood
    7. If logic is the only way we can determine truth/falsehood then logic is justified
    Ergo
    8. Logic is justified

    Yes, the above, argument B, is an argument and although there is a circularity in that I've used logic to prove itself, the circularity is external to the argument, a meta-circularity if you like. The argument itself contains no internal circularity and therefore, is sound.

    Do you see any problems with it?
  • Morality of the existence of a God
    Since God gives himself the credit of creating me (without my consent), he decides to also give himself the ultimate authority over my being. I do not see this as moral.chromechris

    Perhaps the word "authority" has negative connotations that skew your judgment. In line with your God-as-parent analogy, children don't actually mind the limits imposed by their parents because they know that, everything considered, parents have the best intentions for their children. The other word for god, "father" highlights the relationship between us and God in this particular sense and agrees with your analogy too.

    In one sense the description of god as an authority is appropriate and that's god's expertise on morals. Knowing that he's a loving father and a virtuoso of ethics, it behooves us that we heed his advice.

    I consider the greatest gift a creator can bestow on her creation is freedom but a good creator would also show us the ropes on how to live the good life and that may involve some restrictions on freedom.
  • Why aliens will never learn to speak our language
    If I could, I would prefer to believe in a benevolent God.ovdtogt

    :up: